Nursing Elites

1. A client who is admitted to the mental health unit reports shortness of breath and dizziness. The client tells the nurse, “I feel like I’m going to die.” Which nursing problem should the nurse include in this client’s plan of care?

• A. Mood disturbance
• B. Moderate anxiety
• C. Altered thoughts
• D. Social isolation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Moderate anxiety. When a client presents with symptoms such as shortness of breath, dizziness, and a fear of dying, it indicates moderate anxiety. Anxiety can manifest physically with symptoms like these. Mood disturbance (choice A) refers to a change in mood, while altered thoughts (choice C) relate to cognitive changes. Social isolation (choice D) involves a lack of social interaction, which is not the primary concern in this scenario where the client is experiencing acute anxiety symptoms.

2. During admission to the psychiatric unit, a female client is extremely anxious and states that she is worried about the sun coming up the next day. What intervention is most important for the RN to implement during the admission process?

• A. Assist the client in developing alternative coping skills.
• B. Remain calm and use a matter-of-fact approach.
• C. Ask the client why she is so anxious.
• D. Administer a PRN sedative to help relieve her anxiety.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During admission to a psychiatric unit, it is crucial for the registered nurse to remain calm and use a matter-of-fact approach when addressing a client who is extremely anxious. By staying composed and adopting a matter-of-fact demeanor, the nurse can help establish trust and promote a sense of calm in the client. This approach can also convey a sense of reassurance and stability, which can be beneficial in managing the client's anxiety. Assisting the client in developing alternative coping skills (Choice A) may be important in the long term but is not the most immediate priority during the admission process. Asking the client why she is anxious (Choice C) may not be helpful at this moment as the client may not be able to articulate the specific reasons due to her heightened anxiety. Administering a PRN sedative (Choice D) should not be the initial intervention as it does not address the underlying cause of the anxiety and should be considered only if other non-pharmacological interventions are ineffective.

3. The RN is preparing medications for a client with bipolar disorder and notices that the client discontinued antipsychotic medication for several days. Which medication should also be discontinued?

• A. Lithium (Lithotabs).
• B. Benztropine (Cogentin).
• C. Alprazolam (Xanax).
• D. Magnesium (Milk of Magnesia).

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Benztropine (Cogentin). Benztropine is commonly prescribed to manage side effects of antipsychotic medications. Therefore, if the antipsychotic medication is discontinued, there would be no need for Benztropine. Lithium is a mood stabilizer used in bipolar disorder, not directly related to antipsychotic use. Alprazolam is an anxiolytic, and Magnesium (Milk of Magnesia) is a laxative, neither of which is typically associated with antipsychotic medication use.

4. During an annual physical at a corporate clinic, a male employee tells the nurse that his high-stress job is causing trouble in his personal life. He further explains that he often gets so angry while driving to and from work that he has considered “getting even” with other drivers. How should the nurse respond?

• A. “Anger is contagious and could result in a major confrontation.”
• B. “Try not to let your anger cause you to act impulsively.”
• C. “Expressing your anger to a stranger could result in an unsafe situation.”
• D. “It sounds as if there are many situations that make you feel angry.”

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct response is to encourage the client to manage their anger and avoid impulsive actions, as stated in choice B. This approach helps the individual recognize the potential consequences of acting on their anger impulsively. Choice A is not the best response because it focuses on the contagious nature of anger rather than addressing the individual's behavior. Choice C is incorrect as it only highlights the potential dangers of expressing anger to a stranger without providing guidance on managing the underlying issue. Choice D acknowledges the client's feelings but does not offer practical advice on how to address the anger and potential impulsive actions.

5. A client with a history of bipolar disorder is stabilized on a mood stabilizer and has been prescribed lamotrigine (Lamictal). Which outcome indicates that the medication is effective?

• A. Decrease in manic episodes.
• B. Improvement in depressive symptoms.
• C. Reduction in anxiety symptoms.
• D. Increased sleep duration.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Improvement in depressive symptoms. Lamotrigine is commonly used as a mood stabilizer and is particularly effective in managing depressive symptoms in bipolar disorder. While it may also help with preventing manic episodes, its primary indication is for treating depressive symptoms. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because lamotrigine is not specifically indicated for reducing manic episodes, anxiety symptoms, or increasing sleep duration in bipolar disorder.

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