Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of substance abuse is admitted to the hospital for treatment of a new illness. Which of the following is the most important to assess upon admission?

• A. History of recent drug use.
• B. Current employment status.
• C. Family history of mental illness.
• D. Recent weight changes.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assessing the history of recent drug use is crucial when admitting a client with a history of substance abuse. Understanding recent drug use helps in managing potential withdrawal symptoms, preventing drug interactions with the new treatment, and ensuring appropriate care. Assessing current employment status (choice B) is important for social and financial support but is not as crucial as assessing recent drug use in this scenario. Family history of mental illness (choice C) and recent weight changes (choice D) are also important aspects of assessment but are not as immediate and critical as evaluating recent drug use in a client with a history of substance abuse.

2. The RN is teaching a client about the initiation of the prescribed abstinence therapy using disulfiram (Antabuse). What information should the client acknowledge understanding?

• A. Completely abstain from heroin or cocaine use.
• B. Remain alcohol-free for 12 hours prior to the first dose.
• C. Attend monthly meetings of Alcoholics Anonymous.
• D. Admit to others that he is a substance user.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: "Remain alcohol-free for 12 hours prior to the first dose." It is essential for the client to understand the importance of abstaining from alcohol for at least 12 hours before starting disulfiram to prevent potential adverse reactions. Choice A is incorrect because disulfiram is specifically used to deter alcohol consumption, not heroin or cocaine use. Choice C is not directly related to the initiation of disulfiram therapy and attending AA meetings is not a requirement for taking disulfiram. Choice D is irrelevant and unnecessary for the initiation of disulfiram therapy.

3. A client with a history of bipolar disorder is stabilized on a mood stabilizer and has been prescribed lamotrigine (Lamictal). Which outcome indicates that the medication is effective?

• A. Decrease in manic episodes.
• B. Improvement in depressive symptoms.
• C. Reduction in anxiety symptoms.
• D. Increased sleep duration.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Improvement in depressive symptoms. Lamotrigine is commonly used as a mood stabilizer and is particularly effective in managing depressive symptoms in bipolar disorder. While it may also help with preventing manic episodes, its primary indication is for treating depressive symptoms. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because lamotrigine is not specifically indicated for reducing manic episodes, anxiety symptoms, or increasing sleep duration in bipolar disorder.

4. A male client comes to the emergency center with an erection that will not resolve. The client reports that he is taking trazodone (Desyrel) for insomnia. Which information is most important for the nurse to ask this client?

• A. Have you taken any medication for erectile dysfunction?
• B. Are you experiencing any other sexual dysfunctions or problems?
• C. When was the last time you consumed alcohol?
• D. Do you have a history of angina or high blood pressure?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the most important question for the nurse to ask the client is whether he is experiencing any other sexual dysfunctions or problems. This inquiry is crucial as it can help in determining if the persistent erection is a side effect of trazodone. Asking about medication for erectile dysfunction (Choice A) may not provide relevant information in this case, as the focus is on the potential side effects of trazodone. Inquiring about the last time the client consumed alcohol (Choice C) is not directly related to the situation at hand. Questioning about a history of angina or high blood pressure (Choice D) is important for overall assessment but is not as directly relevant to the immediate concern of the persistent erection potentially caused by trazodone.

5. A male client with schizophrenia is demonstrating echolalia, which is becoming annoying to other clients on the unit. What intervention is best for the RN to implement?

• A. Isolate the client from the other clients.
• B. Administer a PRN sedative.
• C. Avoid recognizing the behavior.
• D. Escort the client to his room.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention for the RN to implement in this situation is to avoid recognizing the behavior. By not reinforcing the echolalia through recognition, the behavior is less likely to be perpetuated, and it can reduce annoyance to other clients on the unit. Isolating the client may lead to feelings of rejection and exacerbate the behavior. Administering a PRN sedative should not be the first line of intervention for echolalia, as it does not address the underlying cause. Escorting the client to his room does not actively address the behavior or provide a therapeutic response.

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