Nursing Elites

1. A male client tells the RN that he does not want to take the atypical antipsychotic drug, olanzapine (Zyprexa), because of the side effects he experienced when he took it previously. Which statement is best for the RN to provide?

• A. The medication has side effects, but they are manageable.
• B. If you refuse the medication, you will be restrained.
• C. The doctor will try another medication if this one is not effective.
• D. It is important to take the medication as prescribed for it to be effective.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: It is essential for the nurse to address the client's concerns about the side effects of the medication. By acknowledging the side effects and reassuring the client that they are manageable, the nurse empowers the client to make an informed decision about their treatment. This approach fosters trust between the client and the healthcare provider, promotes open communication, and supports treatment adherence. Choices B and D are not appropriate as they do not address the client's specific concern about the side effects or offer constructive support. Choice C is premature as switching medications should be considered after exploring ways to manage the side effects of the current medication.

2. A client who is known to abuse drugs is admitted to the psychiatric unit. Which medication should the nurse anticipate administering to a client who is exhibiting benzodiazepine withdrawal symptoms?

• A. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
• B. Perphenazine (Trilafon)
• C. Isocarboxazid (Marplan)
• D. Chlordiazepoxide (Librium)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Chlordiazepoxide (Librium) is the correct choice for managing benzodiazepine withdrawal symptoms. Benzodiazepines are drugs that can lead to physical dependence, and abrupt discontinuation can result in withdrawal symptoms. Chlordiazepoxide, a benzodiazepine itself, is often used in a controlled manner to taper off the drug gradually and manage withdrawal symptoms effectively. Choices A, Diphenhydramine, and B, Perphenazine, are not typically used to manage benzodiazepine withdrawal. Choice C, Isocarboxazid, is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) used in the treatment of depression and not indicated for benzodiazepine withdrawal.

3. Which client statement suggests to the nurse that the client is using the defense mechanism of projection to deal with anxiety related to admission to a psychiatric unit?

• A. I am here because the police thought I was doing something wrong
• B. At least I hit the wall instead of hitting the psychiatric aide
• C. I want to be here because I know it is the best psychiatric facility
• D. Don’t believe everything my family tells you, I am not crazy

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because the client is projecting their aggressive impulses onto an inanimate object, the wall, instead of accepting their own feelings. This statement reflects the defense mechanism of projection. Choice A is not projection; it is an explanation of why the client is there. Choice C indicates acceptance of the facility and does not involve projection. Choice D is a denial statement rather than projection.

4. An adolescent with a history of bipolar disorder is hospitalized during a manic episode. Which intervention is most appropriate for the nurse to include in the care plan?

• A. Encourage high levels of physical activity.
• B. Provide a quiet and structured environment.
• C. Engage the client in creative arts activities.
• D. Allow the client to make decisions about their schedule.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During a manic episode, individuals with bipolar disorder may experience heightened energy levels, decreased need for sleep, and racing thoughts. Providing a quiet and structured environment is crucial in managing these symptoms as it helps reduce external stimuli, prevent overstimulation, and promote a sense of calmness. Encouraging high levels of physical activity may exacerbate the manic symptoms by further increasing stimulation and excitement. Engaging the client in creative arts activities might be beneficial during stable periods but may not be the most appropriate intervention during a manic episode. Allowing the client to make decisions about their schedule could potentially lead to impulsivity and poor judgment, which are common characteristics of mania.

5. A client with a history of bipolar disorder is exhibiting symptoms of mania. Which intervention is most appropriate for the nurse to implement?

• A. Encourage the client to participate in group therapy.
• B. Provide a calm and structured environment.
• C. Limit stimulation and set firm limits on behavior.
• D. Promote self-care and hygiene practices.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client with bipolar disorder is experiencing symptoms of mania, the most appropriate intervention for the nurse is to limit stimulation and set firm limits on behavior. This approach helps in managing the manic episode by preventing further escalation. Encouraging participation in group therapy (Choice A) may not be effective during the acute phase of mania, as the client may have difficulty focusing or following group discussions. Providing a calm and structured environment (Choice B) is beneficial, but setting firm limits is crucial to managing the impulsivity and risky behaviors associated with mania. Promoting self-care practices (Choice D) is important, but during a manic episode, setting limits and reducing stimuli take precedence over hygiene practices.

Similar Questions