a client with schizophrenia explains that she has 20 children and then very seriously points to the nurse and explains that she is one of them what is
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

Mental Health HESI

1. A client with schizophrenia explains that she has 20 children and then very seriously points to the nurse and explains that she is one of them. What is the most therapeutic response for the nurse to provide?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Option B, 'My name tag shows that I am a nurse here,' is the most appropriate response as it provides clear and factual information to help the client differentiate between reality and delusion. By pointing out a concrete piece of evidence, the nurse can gently guide the client back to reality without directly challenging or contradicting their belief. Option A, 'Let’s go ask another nurse if this is true,' delays addressing the issue and doesn't provide immediate clarification. Option C, 'I cannot possibly be one of your children,' directly contradicts the client's statement and may increase distress. Option D, 'I know that you don’t have 20 children,' does not address the client's belief and can be perceived as dismissive.

2. A client is admitted for bipolar disorder and alcohol withdrawal, depressive phase. Based on which assessment finding will the RN withhold the clonidine (Catapres) prescription?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is A. Clonidine, such as Catapres, is a medication that can lower blood pressure. Therefore, if a client has low blood pressure readings, like 90/62 mmHg to 92/58 mmHg, the registered nurse should withhold the clonidine prescription to prevent further lowering of blood pressure which could lead to adverse effects. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they are within normal ranges and do not present a contraindication for the administration of clonidine in this context.

3. What intervention is likely to be most effective in returning a middle-aged adult with major depressive disorder who suffers from psychomotor retardation, hypersomnia, and amotivation to a normal level of functioning?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most effective intervention for a middle-aged adult with major depressive disorder experiencing psychomotor retardation, hypersomnia, and amotivation is to teach the client to develop a plan for daily structured activities. This intervention helps combat the symptoms by providing a routine and purpose to the client's day, addressing the issues of psychomotor retardation and amotivation. Structured activities can help establish a sense of normalcy, improve motivation, and regulate sleep patterns. Encouraging exercise (Choice A) can be beneficial but may be challenging for a client experiencing psychomotor retardation. Developing a list of pleasurable activities (Choice B) may not address the need for structure and routine in the client's daily life. Providing education on sleep enhancement methods (Choice C) is important but may not be sufficient to address the overall functional impairment in this case.

4. Kyle, a patient with schizophrenia, began taking the first-generation antipsychotic haloperidol (Haldol) last week. One day you find him sitting very stiffly and not moving. He is diaphoretic, and when you ask if he is okay, he seems unable to respond verbally. His vital signs are: BP 170/100, P 110, T 104.2°F. What is the priority nursing intervention? Select all that apply.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention is to administer a medication such as benztropine IM to correct this dystonic reaction. The presentation of stiffness, diaphoresis, inability to respond verbally, and vital sign changes suggest an acute dystonic reaction, which is an extrapyramidal side effect of antipsychotic medications like haloperidol. Benztropine is an anticholinergic medication commonly used to manage these acute dystonic reactions. Option A is incorrect because holding the medication without addressing the acute symptoms may lead to worsening of the condition. Option B is incorrect as wiping with cold water or alcohol does not address the underlying cause of the symptoms. Option D is incorrect because it mentions tardive dyskinesia, which is a different condition characterized by involuntary movements that occur with long-term antipsychotic use, not the acute dystonic reaction seen here.

5. An adolescent with anorexia nervosa is undergoing nutritional therapy. Which finding best indicates that the client is making progress in treatment?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Weight gain is a crucial indicator of progress in the treatment of anorexia nervosa. In individuals with anorexia, restoring and maintaining a healthy weight is a primary goal to address the underlying nutritional deficiencies and health complications associated with the disorder. While choices B, C, and D are positive developments in the client's overall well-being and recovery journey, they are not as directly linked to the core issue of nutritional rehabilitation in anorexia nervosa. Describing a positive body image, engaging in recreational activities, and talking about future goals are important aspects of psychological and emotional recovery, but weight gain is a more immediate and objective measure of progress in treating anorexia nervosa.

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