Nursing Elites

1. A client who is admitted with a closed head injury after a fall has a blood alcohol level (BAL) of 0.28 (28%) and is difficult to arouse. Which intervention during the first 6 hours following admission should the nurse identify as the priority?

• A. Place in a side-lying position with head of bed elevated.
• B. Administer disulfiram (Antabuse) immediately
• C. Give lorazepam (Ativan) PRN for signs of withdrawal.
• D. Provide thiamine and folate supplements as prescribed.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Maintain the patient's airway is the priority for a client who is intoxicated and obtunded.

2. What should the nurse initially assess when a high school girl reveals engaging in self-induced vomiting as a weight-control measure?

• A. National percentile of weight and height.
• B. Frequency of bingeing and purging behaviors.
• C. Perceptions of family and social relationships.
• D. School grades and extracurricular activities.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is assessing the frequency of bingeing and purging behaviors. This assessment is crucial in understanding the severity of the eating disorder and developing an appropriate treatment plan. Options A, C, and D are not the initial priority when dealing with a student engaging in harmful behaviors related to eating disorders. While weight and height, family relationships, and academic performance are important aspects to consider, the immediate focus should be on evaluating the behaviors directly linked to the reported issue.

3. A male client is admitted to the psychiatric unit for recurrent negative symptoms of chronic schizophrenia and medication adjustment of risperidone (Risperdal). When the client walks to the nurse’s station in a literally contracted position, he states that something has made his body contort into a monster. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Medicate the client with the prescribed antipsychotic thioridazine (Mellaril).
• B. Offer the client a prescribed physical therapy hot pack for muscle spasms.
• C. Direct the client to occupational therapy to distract him from somatic complaints.
• D. Administer the prescribed anticholinergic benztropine (Cogentin) for dystonia.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to administer the prescribed anticholinergic benztropine (Cogentin) for dystonia. The client's symptoms of body contortion and feeling like a monster are indicative of acute dystonia, which can be a side effect of antipsychotic medications like risperidone. Benztropine can help alleviate these acute dystonic reactions. Choice A is incorrect because changing the antipsychotic medication at this point is not indicated. Choice B is not appropriate as the client's symptoms are likely due to acute dystonia rather than muscle spasms. Choice C is also not the best course of action as the client needs immediate intervention for the acute dystonic reaction.

4. During a group session on anger management, a male adolescent client is fidgety, interrupts peers, and talks about his pets at home. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Allow the client to leave and return in 10 minutes.
• B. Explore the client’s feelings about his pets and home life.
• C. Encourage his peers to help involve him in the activity.
• D. Redirect him by encouraging him to read from the handout.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best nursing action in this scenario is to redirect the client by encouraging him to read from the handout. This approach helps refocus the client's attention on the topic being discussed, which is anger management. Choice A is not appropriate as it may disrupt the group session and does not address the client's behavior. Choice B, while important in understanding the client's background, does not address the immediate disruptive behavior. Choice C involves others to manage the client's behavior instead of direct intervention by the nurse, which may not be effective in this situation.

5. April, a 10-year-old admitted to inpatient pediatric care, has been getting more and more wound up and is losing self-control in the day room. Time-out does not appear to be an effective tool for April to engage in self-reflection. April’s mother admits to putting her in time-out up to 20 times a day. The nurse recognizes that:

• A. Time-out is an important part of April's baseline discipline.
• B. Time-out is no longer an effective therapeutic measure.
• C. April enjoys time-out and acts out to get some alone time.
• D. Time-out will need to be replaced with seclusion and restraint.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Time-out is no longer an effective therapeutic measure.' In this scenario, the excessive use of time-out, up to 20 times a day, indicates that it is no longer effective in helping April self-reflect and control her behavior. Constant use of time-out without achieving the desired outcome suggests the need for alternative therapeutic interventions. Choice A is incorrect because the situation described indicates that time-out is not serving its intended purpose. Choice C is also incorrect as the behavior is not driven by a desire for alone time. Choice D is incorrect and inappropriate as seclusion and restraint should only be considered as a last resort and are not indicated based on the information provided.

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