Nursing Elites

1. A client who is admitted with a closed head injury after a fall has a blood alcohol level (BAL) of 0.28 (28%) and is difficult to arouse. Which intervention during the first 6 hours following admission should the nurse identify as the priority?

• A. Place in a side-lying position with head of bed elevated.
• B. Administer disulfiram (Antabuse) immediately
• C. Give lorazepam (Ativan) PRN for signs of withdrawal.
• D. Provide thiamine and folate supplements as prescribed.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Maintain the patient's airway is the priority for a client who is intoxicated and obtunded.

2. When changing the dressing for a client diagnosed with borderline personality disorder who has self-inflicted lacerations on the abdomen, which approach should the RN use?

• A. Provide detailed and thorough explanations while cleansing the wound.
• B. Perform the dressing change in a non-judgmental manner.
• C. Ask why the client cut their own abdomen in a non-threatening manner.
• D. Request assistance from another staff member for the dressing change.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct approach for the RN when changing the dressing for a client diagnosed with borderline personality disorder who has self-inflicted lacerations on the abdomen is to perform the dressing change in a non-judgmental manner. This approach helps maintain therapeutic rapport and respect for the client's situation. Choice A is incorrect because providing detailed and thorough explanations may not be as important as maintaining a non-judgmental attitude. Choice C is incorrect because asking why the client cut their own abdomen may come across as accusatory or threatening, which can be counterproductive in building trust. Choice D is incorrect because the RN should be equipped to handle the dressing change independently while ensuring a supportive and non-judgmental environment for the client.

3. A healthcare professional is preparing to provide medication education to a client who has just been prescribed an antipsychotic medication. What should the healthcare professional include in the teaching plan?

• A. “You should have regular eye exams.”
• B. “It is important to avoid caffeine while on this medication.”
• C. “You may experience dry mouth and blurred vision.”
• D. “You should increase your intake of vitamin C to prevent side effects.”

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Antipsychotic medications often have anticholinergic side effects like dry mouth and blurred vision. Teaching the client about these potential side effects is essential for their understanding and management. Regular eye exams (Choice A) are not specifically related to antipsychotic medications. While avoiding caffeine (Choice B) might be a general good practice, it is not a specific side effect of antipsychotic medications. Increasing vitamin C intake (Choice D) is not a standard recommendation for preventing antipsychotic medication side effects.

4. Kyle, a patient with schizophrenia, began taking the first-generation antipsychotic haloperidol (Haldol) last week. One day you find him sitting very stiffly and not moving. He is diaphoretic, and when you ask if he is okay, he seems unable to respond verbally. His vital signs are: BP 170/100, P 110, T 104.2°F. What is the priority nursing intervention? Select all that apply.

• A. Hold his medication and contact his prescriber.
• B. Wipe him with a washcloth wet with cold water or alcohol.
• C. Administer a medication such as benztropine IM to correct this dystonic reaction.
• D. Reassure him that although there is no treatment for his tardive dyskinesia, it will pass.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention is to administer a medication such as benztropine IM to correct this dystonic reaction. The presentation of stiffness, diaphoresis, inability to respond verbally, and vital sign changes suggest an acute dystonic reaction, which is an extrapyramidal side effect of antipsychotic medications like haloperidol. Benztropine is an anticholinergic medication commonly used to manage these acute dystonic reactions. Option A is incorrect because holding the medication without addressing the acute symptoms may lead to worsening of the condition. Option B is incorrect as wiping with cold water or alcohol does not address the underlying cause of the symptoms. Option D is incorrect because it mentions tardive dyskinesia, which is a different condition characterized by involuntary movements that occur with long-term antipsychotic use, not the acute dystonic reaction seen here.

5. A male client with bipolar disorder tells the nurse that he needs to 'make some deals so that he can improve his retirement savings.' Based on this information, which client outcome should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Delay business decisions until his mania subsides.
• B. Identify the feelings associated with his behaviors.
• C. Seek legal counsel when making business decisions.
• D. Describe why he is feeling fearful about his finances.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In individuals with bipolar disorder experiencing mania, impulsivity and poor judgment are common. Delaying business decisions until the mania subsides is crucial to prevent impulsive and potentially harmful financial choices. Choice B, identifying feelings associated with behaviors, may be important but does not directly address the immediate need to prevent risky financial decisions. Seeking legal counsel (Choice C) may be appropriate in some situations but is not the priority in managing acute mania. Describing why he feels fearful about finances (Choice D) is relevant for understanding emotions but does not address the immediate risk of impulsive financial actions during mania.

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