Nursing Elites

1. A male client with diabetes mellitus type 2, who is taking pioglitazone PO daily, reports to the nurse the recent onset of nausea, accompanied by dark-colored urine, and a yellowish cast to his skin. What instructions should the nurse provide?

• A. Seek immediate medical assistance to evaluate the cause of these symptoms.
• B. Discontinue the medication and follow up with a healthcare provider.
• C. Increase fluid intake and monitor urine color.
• D. Continue taking the medication and report any changes.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Seek immediate medical assistance to evaluate the cause of these symptoms.' The symptoms described by the client, including nausea, dark-colored urine, and yellowish skin, are indicative of possible liver toxicity, a serious side effect of pioglitazone. Therefore, immediate medical evaluation is necessary to assess the severity of the condition and prevent further complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect: B advises discontinuing the medication without seeking immediate medical assistance, which could delay necessary treatment; C focuses solely on increasing fluid intake and monitoring urine color, overlooking the urgency of the situation; and D suggests continuing the medication when prompt evaluation is crucial in this scenario.

2. A newly graduated female staff nurse requests reassignment to another client because a male client is asking her for a date and making suggestive comments. Which response is best for the nurse manager to provide?

• A. I have to call the supervisor to get someone else to transfer to this unit to care for him.
• B. I know you are a good nurse and can handle this client in a professional manner.
• C. I'll talk to the client about his behavior and insist that he stop it immediately.
• D. I'll change your assignment, but let's talk about how a nurse should respond to this kind of client.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best response for the nurse manager to provide in this situation is option D, which involves changing the assignment to address the nurse's immediate concern. It also offers an opportunity to have a conversation with the nurse about how to professionally handle such situations in the future. Option A is not the best response as it does not address the underlying issue and simply shifts the problem to another staff member. Option B, while supportive, does not actively address the client's inappropriate behavior. Option C is not ideal as the nurse manager should handle discussions about inappropriate behavior with clients themselves rather than delegating it to the staff nurse.

3. Sublingual nitroglycerin is administered to a male client with unstable angina who complains of crushing chest pain. Five minutes later the client becomes nauseated, and his blood pressure drops to 60/40. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Administer a second dose of nitroglycerin.
• B. Infuse a rapid IV normal saline bolus.
• C. Begin external chest compressions.
• D. Give a PRN antiemetic medication.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the client's symptoms of nausea and a significant drop in blood pressure suggest a potential right ventricular infarction. The appropriate intervention for this situation is to infuse a rapid IV normal saline bolus. This fluid resuscitation helps improve cardiac output by increasing preload, which can be beneficial in right ventricular infarction. Administering a second dose of nitroglycerin may further lower blood pressure. External chest compressions are not indicated in this case as the client has a pulse. Providing an antiemetic medication does not address the underlying issue of hypotension and potential right ventricular involvement.

4. The nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following a thyroidectomy. Which assessment finding is most concerning?

• A. Slight difficulty swallowing
• B. Hoarse voice
• C. Positive Chvostek's sign
• D. Pain at the incision site

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A positive Chvostek's sign is the most concerning assessment finding as it suggests hypocalcemia, which is a potential complication following thyroidectomy. Hypocalcemia can lead to serious complications such as tetany and laryngospasm. Immediate intervention is required to prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and D are common post-thyroidectomy findings and are expected during the immediate postoperative period. Slight difficulty swallowing may be due to postoperative swelling, a hoarse voice may be temporary due to intubation trauma, and pain at the incision site is normal after surgery.

5. An adolescent's mother calls the clinic because the teen is having recurrent vomiting and has become combative in the last 2 days. The mother states that the teen takes vitamins, calcium, magnesium, and aspirin. Which nursing intervention has the highest priority?

• A. Advise the mother to withhold all medications by mouth.
• B. Instruct the mother to take the teen to the emergency room.
• C. Recommend that the teen withhold food and fluids for 2 hours.
• D. Suggest that the adolescent breathe slowly and deeply.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the mother to take the teen to the emergency room. The symptoms described, including recurrent vomiting and becoming combative after taking vitamins, calcium, magnesium, and aspirin, indicate a potential overdose or a serious condition. Therefore, immediate medical evaluation in the emergency room is crucial. Advising to withhold all medications by mouth (Choice A) may delay necessary treatment. Recommending to withhold food and fluids (Choice C) is not appropriate in this urgent situation. Suggesting deep breathing (Choice D) does not address the seriousness of the symptoms and the need for immediate medical attention.

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