Nursing Elites

1. A client with a spinal cord injury at the T1 level is admitted with a suspected deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in the right leg. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer prescribed anticoagulant therapy
• B. Place the client on bedrest
• C. Elevate the client's right leg
• D. Apply compression stockings to the right leg

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to place the client on bedrest. Placing the client on bedrest is the priority intervention as it helps prevent the risk of embolization from the DVT, which could lead to a life-threatening pulmonary embolism. Administering anticoagulant therapy, elevating the client's right leg, or applying compression stockings are important interventions in managing DVT but should come after ensuring the client is on bedrest to prevent the dislodgment of the clot.

2. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted with an exacerbation. Which assessment finding is most concerning?

• A. Oxygen saturation of 90%
• B. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute
• C. Use of accessory muscles
• D. Inspiratory crackles

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Use of accessory muscles is the most concerning finding in a client with COPD experiencing an exacerbation. This indicates increased work of breathing and can be a sign of respiratory failure, requiring immediate intervention. Oxygen saturation of 90% is low but not as concerning as the increased work of breathing. A respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute can be within normal limits. Inspiratory crackles may be present in COPD due to airway inflammation but are not as concerning as the use of accessory muscles.

3. When planning care for a 10-year-old child with pneumonia receiving oxygen at 5l/min per nasal cannula, what principle of oxygen administration should the nurse consider?

• A. Avoid administration of oxygen at high levels for extended periods.
• B. Increase oxygen flow rate if the child is still tachypneic.
• C. Reduce oxygen levels gradually after symptoms improve.
• D. Humidify the oxygen to prevent drying of mucous membranes.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct principle of oxygen administration to consider is to avoid administering oxygen at high levels for extended periods. High levels of oxygen for prolonged periods can lead to oxygen toxicity, especially in pediatric patients. Increasing the oxygen flow rate based on tachypnea may not be necessary and can potentially lead to oxygen toxicity. Gradually reducing oxygen levels after symptoms improve may compromise the child's oxygenation. While humidifying oxygen is important to prevent drying of mucous membranes, the primary concern in this case is to avoid high oxygen levels for an extended duration to prevent oxygen toxicity.

4. A male client notifies the nurse that he feels short of breath and has chest pressure radiating down his left arm. A STAT 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG) is obtained and shows ST segment elevation in leads II, III, aVF, and V4R. The nurse collects blood samples and gives a normal saline bolus. What action is most important for the nurse to implement?

• A. Obtain the results for STAT serum cardiac biomarkers.
• B. Assess for contraindications for thrombolytic therapy.
• C. Measure ST-segment height and waveform changes.
• D. Transfer for percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI).

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Assessing for contraindications for thrombolytic therapy is crucial as it determines whether the client is a candidate for reperfusion therapy. In this scenario, the client is presenting with symptoms and ECG changes consistent with an acute myocardial infarction (MI). Thrombolytic therapy aims at restoring blood flow to the heart muscle, reducing the size of the infarct. However, it is essential to assess for contraindications such as recent surgery, active bleeding, or a history of stroke to avoid potential complications. Obtaining serum cardiac biomarkers or measuring ST-segment changes are important steps in the diagnosis of MI but are not as time-sensitive as assessing for contraindications to thrombolytic therapy. Transfer for percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) is a definitive treatment for MI, but assessing for thrombolytic therapy eligibility takes precedence in this acute situation.

5. The nurse is caring for a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD). Which laboratory value should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. Serum creatinine of 2.0 mg/dl
• B. Hemoglobin of 10 g/dl
• C. Potassium of 6.5 mEq/L
• D. Blood glucose of 150 mg/dl

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L is dangerously high, a condition known as hyperkalemia, and requires immediate intervention to prevent cardiac complications. Hyperkalemia can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias, making it crucial to notify the healthcare provider promptly. Choices A, B, and D do not indicate immediate life-threatening conditions. Elevated serum creatinine levels are expected in CKD, a hemoglobin level of 10 g/dl is within a reasonable range, and a blood glucose level of 150 mg/dl is not acutely concerning in this context.

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