Nursing Elites

1. A client with a spinal cord injury at the T1 level is admitted with a suspected deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in the right leg. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer prescribed anticoagulant therapy
• B. Place the client on bedrest
• C. Elevate the client's right leg
• D. Apply compression stockings to the right leg

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to place the client on bedrest. Placing the client on bedrest is the priority intervention as it helps prevent the risk of embolization from the DVT, which could lead to a life-threatening pulmonary embolism. Administering anticoagulant therapy, elevating the client's right leg, or applying compression stockings are important interventions in managing DVT but should come after ensuring the client is on bedrest to prevent the dislodgment of the clot.

2. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT)
• B. Hemoglobin level
• C. International Normalized Ratio (INR)
• D. Serum sodium level

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, International Normalized Ratio (INR). The INR should be closely monitored in a client prescribed warfarin (Coumadin) to assess the effectiveness and safety of anticoagulation therapy. Monitoring the INR helps ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range for anticoagulation, reducing the risk of bleeding or clotting complications. Prothrombin time (A) is used to calculate the INR and monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. Hemoglobin level (B) is important but not the primary lab value to monitor when a client is on warfarin. Serum sodium level (D) is not directly related to monitoring warfarin therapy.

3. A client with a history of myocardial infarction is experiencing chest pain. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer oxygen therapy as prescribed.
• B. Administer aspirin as prescribed.
• C. Administer nitroglycerin sublingually as prescribed.
• D. Obtain an electrocardiogram (ECG).

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering oxygen therapy is the initial priority in managing chest pain in a client with a history of myocardial infarction. Oxygen therapy helps improve oxygenation, which is crucial in reducing myocardial damage. While administering aspirin and nitroglycerin are essential interventions in the treatment of myocardial infarction, oxygen therapy takes precedence because it addresses the immediate need for oxygen supply to the heart muscle. Obtaining an ECG is important but can be done after ensuring adequate oxygenation.

4. A client with a history of hypertension is admitted with a blood pressure of 200/110 mmHg. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer an antihypertensive medication as prescribed.
• B. Monitor the client's urine output.
• C. Administer oxygen therapy as prescribed.
• D. Obtain an arterial blood gas (ABG) sample.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to obtain an arterial blood gas (ABG) sample. In a client with severe hypertension, it is essential to assess for metabolic or respiratory acidosis which can be done through an ABG sample. Administering antihypertensive medication without assessing the acid-base status of the client can lead to potential complications. Monitoring urine output and administering oxygen therapy are important interventions but are not the priority in this situation where the focus should be on assessing acidosis.

5. The practical nurse (PN) is assigned to work with three registered nurses (RNs) who are caring for neurologically compromised clients. The client with which change in status is best to assign to the PN?

• A. Diabetic ketoacidosis with a Glasgow Coma Scale score change from 10 to 7.
• B. Myxedema coma with a blood pressure change from 80/50 to 70/40.
• C. Viral meningitis with a temperature change from 101°F to 102°F.
• D. Subdural hematoma with a blood pressure change from 150/80 to 170/60.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The client with viral meningitis and a temperature change is the most stable and appropriate for assignment to the PN. A change in temperature from 101°F to 102°F is not as critical as changes in Glasgow Coma Scale score, blood pressure, or wider blood pressure variations. The other clients require more complex monitoring and intervention due to their critical changes in status.

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