Nursing Elites

1. A client with a spinal cord injury at the T1 level is admitted with a suspected deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in the right leg. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer prescribed anticoagulant therapy
• B. Place the client on bedrest
• C. Elevate the client's right leg
• D. Apply compression stockings to the right leg

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to place the client on bedrest. Placing the client on bedrest is the priority intervention as it helps prevent the risk of embolization from the DVT, which could lead to a life-threatening pulmonary embolism. Administering anticoagulant therapy, elevating the client's right leg, or applying compression stockings are important interventions in managing DVT but should come after ensuring the client is on bedrest to prevent the dislodgment of the clot.

2. An adult male who lives alone is brought to the Emergency Department by his daughter who found him unresponsive. Initial assessment indicated that the client has minimal respiratory effort, and his pupils are fixed and dilated. At the daughter's request, the client is intubated and ventilated. Which nursing intervention has the highest priority?

• A. Notify the client's minister of his condition.
• B. Determine if the client has an executed living will.
• C. Provide the family with information about palliative care.
• D. Discuss the possibility of organ donation with the family.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Verifying whether the client has an executed living will is crucial to ensuring that his treatment preferences are followed. In this critical situation, knowing the client's wishes regarding medical interventions is paramount. Options A, C, and D are not the highest priority as they do not directly address the immediate need to determine the client's treatment preferences.

3. The nurse is preparing a 50 ml dose of 50% dextrose IV for a client with insulin shock. What is the most immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Dilute the dextrose in one liter of 0.9% Normal Saline solution.
• B. Mix the dextrose in a 50 ml piggyback for a total volume of 100 ml.
• C. Push the undiluted dextrose slowly through the current IV infusion.
• D. Ask the pharmacist to add the dextrose to a TPN solution.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct immediate intervention by the nurse in this situation is to push the undiluted 50% dextrose slowly through the current IV infusion. This is because in cases of insulin shock, where the client has dangerously low blood sugar levels, administering 50% dextrose directly into the bloodstream helps rapidly increase blood glucose levels. Choice A is incorrect because diluting the dextrose in one liter of normal saline would delay the administration of glucose, which is needed urgently. Choice B is incorrect as mixing the dextrose in a piggyback solution would also delay the administration of the concentrated dextrose. Choice D is incorrect because adding dextrose to a TPN solution is not the immediate intervention needed to address the low blood sugar levels in a client experiencing insulin shock.

4. A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted with pneumonia. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Oxygen saturation of 90%
• B. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute
• C. Use of accessory muscles
• D. Inspiratory crackles

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Use of accessory muscles. In a client with COPD and pneumonia, the use of accessory muscles indicates increased work of breathing and may signal respiratory failure. Immediate intervention is necessary to prevent further deterioration of the respiratory status. Choice A, an oxygen saturation of 90%, though low, may not require immediate intervention as it is above the typical threshold for initiating supplemental oxygen. Choice B, a respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute, falls within the normal range for an adult and may not be an immediate cause for concern. Choice D, inspiratory crackles, are indicative of fluid in the lungs but may not require immediate intervention unless accompanied by other concerning signs like decreased oxygen saturation or increased respiratory distress.

5. The nurse is caring for a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) who is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which assessment finding is most concerning?

• A. Increased fatigue
• B. Headache
• C. Elevated blood pressure
• D. Low urine output

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) receiving erythropoietin therapy, an elevated blood pressure is the most concerning assessment finding. This finding can indicate worsening hypertension, which requires prompt intervention to prevent complications such as cardiovascular events or further kidney damage. Increased fatigue (Choice A) is a common symptom in CKD and can be expected with the condition itself or the treatment. Headache (Choice B) can also occur but is less specific to CKD or its treatment. Low urine output (Choice D) is a concern in CKD but may not be directly related to erythropoietin therapy.

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