HESI RN
RN HESI Exit Exam
1. The nurse weighs a 6-month-old infant during a well-baby check-up and determines that the baby's weight has tripled compared to the birth weight of 7 pounds 8 ounces. The mother asks if the baby is gaining enough weight. What response should the nurse offer?
- A. Your baby is gaining weight right on schedule
- B. What food does your baby usually eat in a normal day?
- C. The baby is below the normal percentile for weight gain
- D. What was the baby's weight at the last well-baby check-up?
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Your baby is gaining weight right on schedule.' Tripling of birth weight by 6 months is a normal growth pattern in infants, indicating appropriate weight gain and development. Choice B is unrelated to the question as it focuses on the baby's diet rather than addressing the weight gain concern. Choice C is incorrect as tripling the birth weight is considered a healthy growth pattern, not below normal percentile. Choice D is irrelevant to the mother's question about the adequacy of weight gain.
2. An adult female client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) asks the nurse if she can continue taking her over-the-counter medications. Which medication poses the greatest threat to this client?
- A. Magnesium hydroxide (Maalox).
- B. Birth control pills.
- C. Cough syrup containing codeine.
- D. Cold medication containing alcohol.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Magnesium hydroxide (Maalox). In clients with chronic kidney disease (CKD), magnesium can accumulate to toxic levels as the kidneys are unable to excrete it efficiently. This can lead to hypermagnesemia, causing serious and potentially life-threatening complications. Birth control pills (choice B) are metabolized mainly by the liver and do not pose a significant threat to clients with CKD. Cough syrup containing codeine (choice C) should be used cautiously in CKD due to the risk of respiratory depression but does not pose as great a threat as magnesium accumulation. Cold medication containing alcohol (choice D) should be avoided in CKD but does not present the same level of danger as magnesium toxicity.
3. During the infusion of a second unit of packed red blood cells, the client's temperature increases from 99 to 101.6 F. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Stop the transfusion and start a saline infusion.
- B. Administer antipyretics and continue the transfusion.
- C. Monitor the client’s vital signs every 15 minutes.
- D. Notify the healthcare provider and continue the transfusion.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An increase in temperature during a transfusion may indicate a transfusion reaction, which can be serious. Stopping the transfusion and starting a saline infusion is the priority action to prevent further complications and address the potential adverse reaction. Administering antipyretics (choice B) may mask the symptoms of a transfusion reaction, delaying appropriate treatment. While monitoring vital signs (choice C) is important, stopping the transfusion takes precedence to prevent harm. Notifying the healthcare provider (choice D) is essential but should not delay the immediate intervention of stopping the transfusion and starting a saline infusion.
4. In caring for a client receiving the aminoglycoside antibiotic gentamicin, what diagnostic test should the nurse prioritize monitoring?
- A. Urinalysis
- B. Serum creatinine
- C. Serum osmolarity
- D. Liver enzymes
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Serum creatinine. Aminoglycosides, such as gentamicin, are known to cause nephrotoxicity, which can lead to kidney damage. Monitoring serum creatinine levels is crucial in assessing renal function and detecting any potential kidney problems early. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because urinalysis primarily assesses urine composition, serum osmolarity measures the concentration of solutes in the blood, and liver enzymes are not directly impacted by aminoglycoside antibiotics like gentamicin.
5. A client is admitted for type 2 diabetes mellitus (DM) and chronic kidney disease (CKD). Which breakfast selection by the client indicates effective learning?
- A. Scrambled eggs, bacon, one slice of whole wheat toast with butter and jam.
- B. Oatmeal with butter, artificial sweetener, and strawberries, and 6 ounces of coffee.
- C. Banana pancake with maple syrup, sausage links, half grapefruit, and low-fat milk.
- D. Orange juice, yogurt with berries, cold cereal with milk, bran muffin with margarine.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Oatmeal with butter, artificial sweetener, and strawberries is a suitable choice for a client with type 2 diabetes mellitus and chronic kidney disease as it provides a balanced meal that helps manage blood sugar levels and kidney function. Choice A contains high saturated fats and added sugars from bacon, butter, and jam, which are not ideal for this client. Choice C includes high sugar content from maple syrup and pancake, which can negatively impact blood sugar levels. Choice D contains high sugar content from orange juice and cold cereal, which can lead to blood sugar spikes, not suitable for a client with diabetes and CKD.
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