a client with chronic kidney disease ckd is scheduled for a hemodialysis session which laboratory value should the nurse report to the healthcare prov
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI 799 RN Exit Exam

1. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is scheduled for a hemodialysis session. Which laboratory value should the nurse report to the healthcare provider before the procedure?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A serum potassium level of 6.0 mEq/L is dangerously high for a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) scheduled for hemodialysis. High potassium levels can lead to cardiac complications such as arrhythmias. Therefore, it is crucial to report this value to the healthcare provider before the procedure to prevent any potential serious complications. Choices A, B, and D are not as critical in the context of preparing for a hemodialysis session. Serum potassium levels above 6.0 mEq/L require immediate attention to ensure patient safety.

2. For the past 24 hours, an antidiarrheal agent, diphenoxylate, has been administered to a bedridden, older client with infectious gastroenteritis. Which finding requires the nurse to take further action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Tented skin turgor is a sign of dehydration, which can be exacerbated by the use of antidiarrheals in clients with gastroenteritis. In dehydration, the skin loses its elasticity and becomes less resilient when pinched. Therefore, the nurse should take immediate action upon noticing tented skin turgor to prevent further complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because decreased bowel sounds, persistent diarrhea, and dehydration are expected findings in a client with gastroenteritis who has been administered an antidiarrheal agent.

3. The nurse is assessing a primigravida at 39-weeks gestation during a weekly prenatal visit. Which finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A fetal heart rate of 200 beats per minute is significantly elevated and requires immediate medical attention. This finding could indicate fetal distress, tachycardia, or other serious issues that need prompt evaluation. Mild ankle edema, complaints of back pain, and decreased fetal movements are common in pregnancy but are not as urgent or concerning as a high fetal heart rate.

4. A client with a history of hypertension is admitted with a blood pressure of 200/110 mmHg. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to obtain an arterial blood gas (ABG) sample. In a client with severe hypertension, it is essential to assess for metabolic or respiratory acidosis which can be done through an ABG sample. Administering antihypertensive medication without assessing the acid-base status of the client can lead to potential complications. Monitoring urine output and administering oxygen therapy are important interventions but are not the priority in this situation where the focus should be on assessing acidosis.

5. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is receiving supplemental oxygen. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. The use of accessory muscles indicates increased work of breathing and may signal respiratory failure in a client with COPD, requiring immediate intervention. Oxygen saturation of 90% is within an acceptable range for COPD patients on supplemental oxygen. A respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute is slightly elevated but not an immediate concern. A blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg is within the normal range and does not require immediate intervention in this scenario.

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