HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet
1. A client with end-stage renal disease (ESRD) is scheduled for hemodialysis. Which laboratory value should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately?
- A. Serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L
- B. Serum calcium of 8 mg/dL
- C. Serum creatinine of 2.0 mg/dL
- D. White blood cell count of 10,000/mm³
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A serum potassium level of 5.5 mEq/L is concerning in a client with ESRD scheduled for hemodialysis as it indicates hyperkalemia, requiring immediate intervention. Hyperkalemia can lead to serious cardiac arrhythmias, especially during hemodialysis. Serum calcium, serum creatinine, and white blood cell count, while important, do not pose immediate life-threatening risks like hyperkalemia.
2. A client is admitted for type 2 diabetes mellitus (DM) and chronic kidney disease (CKD). Which breakfast selection by the client indicates effective learning?
- A. Scrambled eggs, bacon, one slice of whole wheat toast with butter and jam.
- B. Oatmeal with butter, artificial sweetener, and strawberries, and 6 ounces of coffee.
- C. Banana pancake with maple syrup, sausage links, half grapefruit, and low-fat milk.
- D. Orange juice, yogurt with berries, cold cereal with milk, bran muffin with margarine.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Oatmeal with butter, artificial sweetener, and strawberries is a suitable choice for a client with type 2 diabetes mellitus and chronic kidney disease as it provides a balanced meal that helps manage blood sugar levels and kidney function. Choice A contains high saturated fats and added sugars from bacon, butter, and jam, which are not ideal for this client. Choice C includes high sugar content from maple syrup and pancake, which can negatively impact blood sugar levels. Choice D contains high sugar content from orange juice and cold cereal, which can lead to blood sugar spikes, not suitable for a client with diabetes and CKD.
3. A client with a tracheostomy has thick, tenacious secretions. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Perform deep suctioning every 2 to 4 hours.
- B. Encourage the client to drink plenty of fluids.
- C. Increase humidity in the client's room.
- D. Administer a mucolytic agent.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Increasing humidity in the client's room can help liquefy thick secretions and facilitate easier airway clearance in a client with a tracheostomy. This intervention should be implemented first as it is non-invasive and can often effectively address the issue of thick secretions. Performing deep suctioning (Choice A) should not be the first intervention as it is more invasive and should be done based on assessment findings. Encouraging the client to drink plenty of fluids (Choice B) is beneficial but may not provide immediate relief for thick secretions. Administering a mucolytic agent (Choice D) requires a healthcare provider's prescription and should be based on assessment data and the client's condition.
4. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is receiving supplemental oxygen. Which clinical finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Oxygen saturation of 90%
- B. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute
- C. Use of accessory muscles
- D. Inspiratory crackles
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Use of accessory muscles. In a client with COPD receiving supplemental oxygen, the use of accessory muscles is a critical finding that requires immediate intervention. This observation indicates increased work of breathing, suggesting respiratory distress. Addressing this issue promptly is crucial to prevent further respiratory compromise. Choice A, oxygen saturation of 90%, is slightly below the normal range but may not require immediate intervention unless it continues to decrease. Choice B, a respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute, is within normal limits for an adult and does not indicate an urgent issue. Choice D, inspiratory crackles, may be present in COPD due to secretions or inflammation but do not necessitate immediate intervention unless associated with other concerning signs.
5. The nurse is caring for a client with end-stage renal disease (ESRD) who is scheduled for hemodialysis. Which clinical finding is most concerning?
- A. Blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg
- B. Heart rate of 110 beats per minute
- C. Fever of 100.4°F
- D. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. A fever of 100.4°F is most concerning in a client with ESRD scheduled for hemodialysis because it may indicate an underlying infection that requires immediate attention. Elevated body temperature can be a sign of systemic infection, which can quickly worsen in individuals with compromised renal function. Monitoring for infection is crucial in ESRD patients to prevent complications. Choices A, B, and D are not as immediately concerning in this context. While variations in blood pressure, heart rate, and respiratory rate should be monitored, they are not as indicative of a potentially severe issue as an unexplained fever in this scenario.
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