Nursing Elites

1. A client with pneumonia has arterial blood gases levels at: pH 7.33; PaCO2 49 mm/Hg; HCO3 25 mEq/L; PaO2 95. What intervention should the nurse implement based on these results?

• A. Institute coughing and deep breathing protocols.
• B. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula.
• C. Prepare for intubation and mechanical ventilation.
• D. Increase IV fluids to improve hydration.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The ABG results indicate respiratory acidosis due to an elevated PaCO2 (49 mm/Hg), indicating hypoventilation. The appropriate intervention for respiratory acidosis is to improve ventilation. Coughing and deep breathing protocols can help the client to effectively ventilate and improve gas exchange. Administering oxygen via nasal cannula (Choice B) may be necessary in respiratory distress situations, but addressing the underlying cause of hypoventilation is crucial. Intubation and mechanical ventilation (Choice C) are not the first-line interventions for uncomplicated respiratory acidosis. Increasing IV fluids (Choice D) does not directly address the respiratory acidosis present in this scenario.

2. A client with heart failure is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin) and furosemide (Lasix). Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Heart rate of 60 beats per minute
• B. Apical pulse of 58 beats per minute
• C. Presence of a new murmur
• D. Blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. The presence of a new murmur in a client with heart failure receiving digoxin and furosemide is concerning as it may indicate valvular problems or other complications that require immediate intervention. A heart rate of 60 beats per minute and an apical pulse of 58 beats per minute are within normal limits for a client with heart failure on these medications. A blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg, while slightly low, may be expected due to the diuretic effect of furosemide and may not require immediate intervention unless the client is symptomatic.

3. After multiple attempts to stop drinking, an adult male is admitted to the medical intensive care unit (MICU) with delirium tremens. He is tachycardic, diaphoretic, restless, and disoriented. Which finding indicates a life-threatening condition?

• A. Widening QRS complexes and flat T waves
• B. Tachycardia and elevated blood pressure
• C. Restlessness and anxiety
• D. Diaphoresis and dehydration

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Widening QRS complexes and flat T waves. In the context of an adult male with delirium tremens and symptoms like tachycardia, diaphoresis, restlessness, and disorientation, the presence of widening QRS complexes and flat T waves on an ECG suggests severe electrolyte imbalance, particularly hypokalemia. This severe electrolyte imbalance can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias such as ventricular tachycardia or fibrillation. Tachycardia and elevated blood pressure (choice B) can be expected in delirium tremens but do not directly indicate a life-threatening condition as widening QRS complexes and flat T waves do. Restlessness and anxiety (choice C) are common symptoms of delirium tremens but do not specifically signify a life-threatening condition. Diaphoresis and dehydration (choice D) are also common in delirium tremens but do not directly point towards a life-threatening electrolyte imbalance as widening QRS complexes and flat T waves do.

4. A client with a history of chronic kidney disease (CKD) is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which assessment finding is most concerning?

• A. Increased fatigue
• B. Headache
• C. Elevated blood pressure
• D. Low urine output

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with chronic kidney disease receiving erythropoietin therapy, elevated blood pressure is the most concerning assessment finding. Erythropoietin can increase red blood cell production, leading to thicker blood, which in turn can elevate blood pressure. Elevated blood pressure in this scenario may indicate worsening hypertension, which requires prompt intervention to prevent complications such as stroke, heart attack, or further kidney damage. Increased fatigue (choice A) is a common symptom in CKD patients and can be expected with erythropoietin therapy. Headache (choice B) can occur but is less concerning than elevated blood pressure in this context. Low urine output (choice D) is a significant finding in CKD, but in a client receiving erythropoietin, elevated blood pressure takes precedence due to its potential for immediate adverse effects.

5. While caring for a toddler receiving oxygen (02) via face mask, the nurse observes that the child's lips and nares are dry and cracked. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Ask the mother what she usually uses on the child's lips and nose.
• B. Apply a petroleum jelly (Vaseline) to the child's nose and lips.
• C. Use a topical lidocaine (Zylocaine viscous) analgesic for cracked lips.
• D. Use a water-soluble lubricant on affected oral and nasal mucosa.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A water-soluble lubricant is safe to use in conjunction with oxygen therapy, unlike petroleum jelly which is flammable.

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