HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam Capstone
1. A client with hyperthyroidism is admitted for total thyroidectomy. What is the nurse's priority post-operative intervention?
- A. Monitor the client's calcium levels for hypocalcemia.
- B. Monitor for signs of respiratory distress.
- C. Administer oral calcium supplements.
- D. Elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's calcium levels for hypocalcemia. After a total thyroidectomy, there is a risk of accidental removal or damage to the parathyroid glands, leading to hypocalcemia. This complication can manifest within the first 24-48 hours post-op. Monitoring calcium levels is crucial to prevent serious complications such as tetany or seizures. While monitoring for respiratory distress is important, it is not the priority in this case. Administering oral calcium supplements should only be done based on the healthcare provider's prescription and after assessing the client's calcium levels. Elevating the head of the bed to 45 degrees is beneficial for respiratory function but is not the priority intervention for a client at risk for hypocalcemia post-thyroidectomy.
2. A client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) is experiencing nausea and vomiting. What is the nurse's first action?
- A. Check the client's blood glucose level.
- B. Decrease the rate of TPN infusion.
- C. Administer an antiemetic as prescribed.
- D. Check the client's TPN bag for solution accuracy.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take when a client receiving TPN is experiencing nausea and vomiting is to check the client's TPN bag for solution accuracy. This is crucial to ensure that the correct solution is being administered and to address any potential errors. Checking the blood glucose level or administering an antiemetic may be necessary interventions but addressing the TPN bag's accuracy should be the priority to prevent any complications related to incorrect TPN solution.
3. An adolescent who was diagnosed with diabetes mellitus Type 1 at the age of 9 is admitted to the hospital in diabetic ketoacidosis. Which occurrence is the most likely cause of ketoacidosis?
- A. Had a cold and ear infection for the past two days
- B. Missed a dose of insulin
- C. Did not follow dietary restrictions
- D. Overexerted during exercise
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Infections, like a cold and ear infection, increase the body's metabolic needs and insulin resistance, making diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) more likely. While missing insulin doses or not following dietary restrictions can trigger DKA, an illness is the most common precipitating factor in pediatric Type 1 diabetes. Option B is less likely as missing insulin can lead to hyperglycemia but might not be the immediate cause of ketoacidosis. Option C can contribute to DKA over time, but the acute trigger is usually an illness. Option D, overexertion during exercise, is less likely to cause DKA compared to an infection.
4. A client receiving chemotherapy for cancer treatment is experiencing nausea and vomiting. What is the nurse's best intervention to manage these symptoms?
- A. Offer frequent, small meals
- B. Administer antiemetics before meals
- C. Encourage the client to eat a high-fat diet
- D. Provide the client with cold, carbonated beverages
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Administering antiemetics before meals is the best intervention to manage nausea and vomiting in clients receiving chemotherapy. This proactive approach helps control symptoms by preventing nausea from occurring, rather than waiting to treat it once symptoms have already started. Offering frequent, small meals (choice A) may worsen symptoms in some cases due to increased stomach activity. Encouraging a high-fat diet (choice C) can be difficult for nauseated clients and may not alleviate symptoms. Providing cold, carbonated beverages (choice D) could exacerbate nausea further due to the temperature and carbonation.
5. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with severe anemia. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Pale skin
- B. Increased heart rate
- C. Shortness of breath
- D. Fatigue
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Shortness of breath is a critical sign in severe anemia as it indicates inadequate oxygenation, which can be life-threatening. Immediate intervention is necessary to address this condition. Pale skin (choice A) is a common finding in anemia but not as urgent as shortness of breath. Increased heart rate (choice B) is a compensatory mechanism in anemia to maintain oxygen delivery and is important but not as urgent as addressing inadequate oxygenation. Fatigue (choice D) is a common symptom in anemia but does not indicate an immediate life-threatening situation like shortness of breath does.
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