Nursing Elites

1. A client with peripheral artery disease reports pain while walking. What intervention should the nurse recommend?

• A. Encourage the client to increase physical activity.
• B. Instruct the client to take rest breaks during walking.
• C. Apply warm compresses to the legs to improve circulation.
• D. Massage the affected leg to relieve the pain.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clients with peripheral artery disease often experience claudication (leg pain during walking) due to decreased blood flow. Encouraging rest breaks during walking helps to manage pain and improve circulation. Rest breaks allow the muscles to recover from ischemia caused by inadequate blood supply. Increasing physical activity without breaks may worsen the symptoms. Applying warm compresses can potentially lead to burns or skin damage in individuals with compromised circulation. Massaging the affected leg is contraindicated in peripheral artery disease as it can further compromise blood flow.

2. The nurse is preparing a client who had a BKA amputation for discharge to home. Which recommendations should the nurse provide this client?

• A. All of the above
• B. Inspect the skin for redness
• C. Use a residual limb shrinker
• D. Wash the stump with soap and water

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Proper care of the residual limb is essential in preventing complications like infection or poor healing. By choosing 'All of the above,' the nurse ensures that the client receives comprehensive care. Inspecting the skin for redness is crucial as it can help in early detection of infections. Using a residual limb shrinker helps reduce swelling and maintain proper shaping of the limb. Washing the stump with soap and water on a daily basis is important for hygiene and preventing infections. Therefore, all the recommendations (choices A, B, and C) are essential for the client's care, making choice A the correct answer. Choice D is incorrect as it does not encompass all the necessary recommendations for the client's care.

3. A male client with heart failure becomes short of breath, anxious, and has pink frothy sputum. What is the first action the nurse should take?

• A. Consult the charge nurse about administering morphine.
• B. Administer the morphine sulfate as prescribed.
• C. Withhold the morphine until the dyspnea resolves.
• D. Review the need for the morphine prescription with the provider.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer the morphine sulfate as prescribed. In this situation, the client is experiencing symptoms of acute pulmonary edema, a complication of heart failure. Morphine is indicated as it helps reduce anxiety and respiratory distress by decreasing preload and afterload. It dilates blood vessels, reducing the workload of the heart and improving oxygenation. The priority is to administer the morphine promptly to alleviate the client's distress and improve oxygenation. Consulting the charge nurse (A) or reviewing the need for the morphine prescription with the provider (D) would cause a delay in providing essential treatment. Withholding the morphine (C) would not be appropriate as it is indicated for this condition.

4. A client is admitted with an epidural hematoma after a skateboarding accident. How should the nurse differentiate the vascular source of intracranial bleeding?

• A. Monitor for clear fluid leakage from the nose.
• B. Assess for rapid onset of decreased level of consciousness.
• C. Check for bruising around the head and neck.
• D. Assess for changes in pupil size and reactivity.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An epidural hematoma is characterized by a rapid onset of symptoms, including decreased level of consciousness, due to arterial bleeding, which differentiates it from other types of intracranial hemorrhage. Monitoring for clear fluid leakage from the nose (choice A) is more indicative of a basilar skull fracture and cerebrospinal fluid leak. Checking for bruising around the head and neck (choice C) is more suggestive of soft tissue injuries or facial fractures. Assessing for changes in pupil size and reactivity (choice D) is essential in evaluating traumatic brain injuries, but it is not specific to differentiating the vascular source of intracranial bleeding in an epidural hematoma.

5. A young woman with multiple sclerosis just received several immunizations in preparation for moving into a college dormitory. Two days later, she reports to the nurse that she is experiencing increasing fatigue and visual problems. What teaching should the nurse provide?

• A. Immunizations can trigger a relapse of the disease, so get plenty of extra rest
• B. Visual problems are unrelated to the recent immunizations
• C. Increase fluid intake to reduce symptoms of fatigue
• D. Consult the healthcare provider immediately for steroid therapy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Immunizations can sometimes trigger relapses in multiple sclerosis due to the activation of the immune system. Extra rest can help manage these symptoms. Choice B is incorrect because visual problems can be associated with the immune response triggered by immunizations in individuals with multiple sclerosis. While increasing fluid intake is generally good advice, in this case, the nurse should focus on explaining the possible connection between the immunizations and the symptoms experienced. Choice D is not the immediate course of action; educating the patient on the potential link between immunizations and symptom exacerbation is more appropriate at this stage.

Similar Questions