HESI RN
RN HESI Exit Exam Capstone
1. A client with peripheral artery disease reports pain while walking. What intervention should the nurse recommend?
- A. Encourage the client to increase physical activity.
- B. Instruct the client to take rest breaks during walking.
- C. Apply warm compresses to the legs to improve circulation.
- D. Massage the affected leg to relieve the pain.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Clients with peripheral artery disease often experience claudication (leg pain during walking) due to decreased blood flow. Encouraging rest breaks during walking helps to manage pain and improve circulation. Rest breaks allow the muscles to recover from ischemia caused by inadequate blood supply. Increasing physical activity without breaks may worsen the symptoms. Applying warm compresses can potentially lead to burns or skin damage in individuals with compromised circulation. Massaging the affected leg is contraindicated in peripheral artery disease as it can further compromise blood flow.
2. A client with acute pancreatitis is experiencing severe abdominal pain. Which intervention should the nurse implement to help manage the client's pain?
- A. Encourage deep breathing exercises
- B. Place the client in a side-lying position with knees bent
- C. Administer oral analgesics as prescribed
- D. Encourage the client to take small sips of water
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct intervention to help manage the client's pain in acute pancreatitis is to place the client in a side-lying position with knees bent. This position can alleviate abdominal pain by reducing pressure on the pancreas and improving comfort. Encouraging deep breathing exercises (Choice A) is beneficial for other conditions but may not directly help alleviate abdominal pain in pancreatitis. Administering oral analgesics (Choice C) may be necessary but is not the initial priority for managing pain in acute pancreatitis. Encouraging the client to take small sips of water (Choice D) is important for hydration but is not directly related to pain management in this context.
3. A male client with schizophrenia is socially reclusive and pacing in the hallway. What is the most important intervention for the nurse to implement?
- A. Take the client's temperature and blood pressure.
- B. Encourage the client to rest.
- C. Plan an activity that includes physical exercise.
- D. Carefully observe the client throughout the shift.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to carefully observe the client throughout the shift. In this situation, the client's behavior suggests agitation and restlessness, which could potentially escalate. Observation is crucial to monitor any changes in behavior, assess for signs of distress, and ensure the client's safety. Taking the client's temperature and blood pressure (Choice A) may not address the immediate need for managing the client's behavior. Encouraging the client to rest (Choice B) might not be effective if the client is highly agitated. Planning an activity that includes physical exercise (Choice C) could exacerbate the situation rather than address the current behavior. Therefore, the priority is to observe the client closely to provide appropriate support and intervention as needed.
4. A client with adrenal crisis has a temperature of 102°F, heart rate of 138 bpm, and blood pressure of 80/60 mmHg. Which action should the nurse implement first?
- A. Obtain an analgesic prescription.
- B. Infuse intravenous fluid bolus.
- C. Administer PRN oral antipyretic.
- D. Cover the client with a cooling blanket.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In a client with adrenal crisis presenting with a high temperature, tachycardia, and hypotension, the priority action for the nurse to implement first is to infuse an intravenous fluid bolus. This intervention aims to address the hypotension by increasing the circulating volume and improving perfusion. Obtaining an analgesic prescription (Choice A) is not the priority in this situation. Administering an oral antipyretic (Choice C) may help reduce the fever but does not address the primary issue of hypotension. Covering the client with a cooling blanket (Choice D) may help with temperature control but does not address the hemodynamic instability caused by the adrenal crisis.
5. An antibiotic IM injection for a 2-year-old child is ordered. The total volume of the injection equals 2.0 ml. The correct action is to
- A. Administer the medication in 2 separate injections
- B. Give the medication in the dorsal gluteal site
- C. Call to get a smaller volume ordered
- D. Check with the pharmacy for a liquid form of the medication
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Injections over 1 mL should be split into two separate injections for young children. This helps in preventing discomfort, ensuring proper absorption, and reducing the risk of tissue damage. Giving the medication in one injection of 2.0 ml might be too much for a 2-year-old child. Choices B and D are incorrect because the dorsal gluteal site is not recommended for children due to potential injury, and changing the form of medication might not be necessary if the volume can be adjusted. Choice C is unnecessary as splitting the dose into two injections is the appropriate action.
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