Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with newly diagnosed hypertension. Which lifestyle modification should the nurse emphasize to the client?

• A. Increase sodium intake to improve fluid balance
• B. Engage in regular physical activity
• C. Increase caffeine intake to improve energy
• D. Reduce potassium intake to lower blood pressure

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Engaging in regular physical activity is a crucial lifestyle modification for managing hypertension. Regular exercise helps improve cardiovascular health, lower blood pressure, and contribute to overall well-being. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing sodium intake is not recommended for hypertension as it can worsen fluid retention and elevate blood pressure. Increasing caffeine intake is also not advised as it may lead to increased heart rate and blood pressure. Reducing potassium intake is not beneficial as potassium is essential for maintaining healthy blood pressure levels.

2. A male client with heart failure presents with shortness of breath, audible wheezing, and pink frothy sputum. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Consult with the charge nurse regarding morphine prescription.
• B. Administer the dose of morphine sulfate as prescribed.
• C. Withhold morphine until dyspnea resolves.
• D. Review the need for the prescription with the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer the dose of morphine sulfate as prescribed. In heart failure, morphine helps reduce anxiety, preload, and afterload on the heart, improving oxygenation. The client's symptoms indicate acute decompensated heart failure, and morphine should be administered promptly to relieve distress. Consulting the charge nurse (Choice A) or withholding morphine (Choice C) would delay necessary treatment. Reviewing the prescription with the healthcare provider (Choice D) is not needed in this acute situation.

3. A client with a head injury reports severe nausea. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Administer anti-nausea medication as prescribed.
• B. Prepare the client for a CT scan.
• C. Elevate the head of the bed and provide an emesis basin.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Severe nausea in a client with a head injury may be a sign of increased intracranial pressure. The nurse should notify the healthcare provider immediately to ensure timely intervention, as increased pressure can lead to further complications such as brain herniation. Administering anti-nausea medication or preparing for a CT scan may delay necessary treatment for the underlying cause of the nausea, which could be related to the head injury. Elevating the head of the bed and providing an emesis basin may help manage symptoms but should not be the priority over addressing the potential increase in intracranial pressure.

4. A client with hyperthyroidism is experiencing palpitations. What intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Encourage the client to rest and limit activity.
• B. Administer a beta-blocker to reduce heart rate.
• C. Encourage the client to drink cool fluids.
• D. Provide the client with a cool environment.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In clients with hyperthyroidism experiencing palpitations, administering a beta-blocker is the appropriate intervention. Beta-blockers help reduce heart rate and control symptoms in hyperthyroidism. Encouraging rest (Choice A) may be helpful but does not directly address the palpitations. Drinking cool fluids (Choice C) and providing a cool environment (Choice D) are more focused on temperature regulation and comfort, which are not the primary interventions for palpitations in hyperthyroidism.

5. A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving heparin and reports tarry stools. What should the nurse do?

• A. Prepare to administer warfarin.
• B. Assess characteristics of the client's pain.
• C. Monitor stools for blood and review PTT results.
• D. Continue the heparin and prepare to administer Vitamin K.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client on heparin reports tarry stools, it can be indicative of gastrointestinal bleeding. The correct action for the nurse is to monitor the stools for blood and review the Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT) results. This is essential to detect any potential bleeding complications associated with heparin therapy. Option A is incorrect because warfarin is not the immediate intervention for tarry stools in a client on heparin. Option B is irrelevant to the situation described. Option D is incorrect as Vitamin K is the antidote for warfarin, not heparin.

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