a client with chronic renal failure has a potassium level of 65 meql what is the nurses priority action
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Exit Exam RN Capstone

1. A client with chronic renal failure has a potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L. What is the nurse's priority action?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L indicates hyperkalemia, which can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias. The correct priority action for the nurse is to notify the healthcare provider immediately. Hyperkalemia requires prompt intervention to lower potassium levels and prevent complications. Administering a potassium supplement (Choice A) would worsen the condition. Administering calcium gluconate (Choice C) is a treatment option but is not the nurse's priority action. Restricting the client's potassium intake (Choice D) may be necessary but is not the immediate priority when facing a critical potassium level.

2. The nurse is assessing a client with a new diagnosis of hyperthyroidism. Which assessment finding should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In hyperthyroidism, there is an increase in metabolism, leading to symptoms such as increased appetite, weight loss, and heat intolerance. Therefore, the nurse should expect an increased appetite in a client with hyperthyroidism. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because decreased heart rate and cold intolerance are more commonly associated with hypothyroidism, while weight gain is not typically seen in hyperthyroidism.

3. A client with a history of asthma reports using an albuterol inhaler more frequently than prescribed. Which action should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Increased use of a rescue inhaler like albuterol may indicate worsening asthma symptoms. The nurse should first assess the client's respiratory status to determine the severity of the issue and the next steps in care. Option A is not the first action because assessing the client's condition should precede notifying the healthcare provider. Option B, scheduling a pulmonary function test, is not the priority as immediate assessment of the client's respiratory status is crucial. Instructing the client to decrease inhaler use should come after assessing the client's condition to ensure the appropriate intervention.

4. A client is receiving 30 mg of enoxaparin subcutaneously twice a day. In assessing adverse effects of the medication, which serum laboratory value is most important for the nurse to monitor?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Platelet count. Enoxaparin can cause heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT), making it crucial to monitor the platelet count for signs of thrombocytopenia. Monitoring the platelet count helps in early detection of this serious adverse effect. Choices A, C, and D are less relevant in this context. Hemoglobin level checks are more indicative of bleeding issues rather than thrombocytopenia caused by enoxaparin. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) and prothrombin time (PT) are less impacted by enoxaparin and are not typically used to monitor for HIT.

5. A client with Alzheimer’s disease is becoming increasingly confused. What action should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first when a client with Alzheimer’s disease is becoming increasingly confused is to monitor the client’s vital signs (Choice B). Increased confusion in Alzheimer’s disease patients may indicate underlying issues like infection, dehydration, or medication side effects. Monitoring vital signs is crucial in identifying any potential causes of the confusion. Choices A, C, and D are not the priority in this situation. Reorienting the client to time and place (Choice A) can be helpful but is not the first priority. Providing calming activities (Choice C) and consulting with the healthcare provider about medication adjustments (Choice D) may be necessary but should come after assessing the client's vital signs to rule out immediate physical causes of confusion.

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