a client with chronic renal failure has a potassium level of 65 meql what is the nurses priority action
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Exit Exam RN Capstone

1. A client with chronic renal failure has a potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L. What is the nurse's priority action?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L indicates hyperkalemia, which can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias. The correct priority action for the nurse is to notify the healthcare provider immediately. Hyperkalemia requires prompt intervention to lower potassium levels and prevent complications. Administering a potassium supplement (Choice A) would worsen the condition. Administering calcium gluconate (Choice C) is a treatment option but is not the nurse's priority action. Restricting the client's potassium intake (Choice D) may be necessary but is not the immediate priority when facing a critical potassium level.

2. A client with a urinary tract infection is prescribed trimethoprim. What is the most important teaching point?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Take the full course of antibiotics, even if symptoms improve.' It is crucial for clients to complete the full course of antibiotics as prescribed to ensure that the infection is fully eradicated and to prevent the development of antibiotic resistance. Choice A is incorrect because antibiotics should not be reserved for severe symptoms only; they should be taken as prescribed. Choice B is incorrect as stopping the medication once symptoms disappear may lead to a relapse of the infection. Choice C is important but not the most crucial teaching point when compared to completing the full course of antibiotics.

3. A client with acute pancreatitis is receiving nothing by mouth (NPO) status. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Monitor the client's intake and output. When a client with acute pancreatitis is on NPO status, the nurse's priority intervention is to monitor the client's intake and output. This is crucial to assess for signs of dehydration, electrolyte imbalances, and to ensure the client is responding appropriately to treatment. Administering antiemetic medication (choice A) may be necessary for managing nausea and vomiting but is not the priority over monitoring intake and output. Providing mouth care (choice C) and elevating the client's head of the bed (choice D) are important aspects of care but do not take precedence over monitoring intake and output to prevent complications in clients with NPO status due to acute pancreatitis.

4. An unresponsive male victim of a diving accident is brought to the emergency department where immediate surgery is required to save his life. No family members are available. What action should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In emergency situations where immediate surgery is required to save a patient's life and no family members are available, consent can be waived to proceed with necessary interventions. The priority in this scenario is to proceed with surgery preparation without waiting for consent, as any delay could jeopardize the patient's life. Asking the friend to sign informed consent or notifying the unit manager for a court order would cause unnecessary delays, which are not advisable in this critical situation. Continuing life support until a guardian is found is not the most appropriate action when immediate surgical intervention is necessary.

5. While auscultating heart sounds, the nurse hears a swishing sound. How should this sound be documented?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Murmur.' A murmur is a swishing sound heard during auscultation, typically caused by turbulent blood flow through the heart or valves. Choices C and D, 'S3 sound' and 'S4 sound,' refer to specific heart sounds associated with different cardiac conditions, not the general description of a swishing sound. Choice A, 'Heart murmur,' is redundant as 'murmur' alone is sufficient to describe the swishing sound heard.

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