Nursing Elites

1. A client with pneumonia is receiving oxygen via nasal cannula at 2 L/min. What assessment finding indicates the need for further intervention?

• A. The client reports feeling short of breath.
• B. The client's oxygen saturation is 92%.
• C. The client's respiratory rate is 20 breaths per minute.
• D. The client is unable to complete sentences without pausing.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because the inability to complete sentences without pausing indicates respiratory distress and the need for immediate intervention. This finding suggests an increased work of breathing and inadequate oxygenation. Choices A, B, and C are not as urgent as choice D. Feeling short of breath (choice A) is expected in pneumonia but does not necessarily indicate the need for immediate intervention. An oxygen saturation of 92% (choice B) is slightly below the normal range but may not require immediate intervention. A respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute (choice C) is within the normal range and does not signify an urgent need for intervention.

2. A client is admitted with a large pleural effusion. Which procedure should the nurse prepare the client for?

• A. Thoracentesis.
• B. Endotracheal intubation.
• C. Chest tube insertion.
• D. Bronchoscopy.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: The correct procedure for a client with a large pleural effusion is thoracentesis. Thoracentesis is a diagnostic and therapeutic procedure used to remove fluid from the pleural space, which can help relieve symptoms associated with pleural effusion. Choice B (Endotracheal intubation) is incorrect as it is a procedure to secure the airway by placing a tube into the trachea. Choice C (Chest tube insertion) is incorrect as it is typically done to drain air or fluid from the pleural space over a longer period. Choice D (Bronchoscopy) is incorrect as it is a procedure used to visualize the airways and diagnose lung conditions, not specifically for pleural effusion removal.

3. A client with chronic renal failure has a potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Administer a potassium supplement.
• B. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
• C. Administer calcium gluconate.
• D. Restrict the client's potassium intake.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L indicates hyperkalemia, which can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias. The correct priority action for the nurse is to notify the healthcare provider immediately. Hyperkalemia requires prompt intervention to lower potassium levels and prevent complications. Administering a potassium supplement (Choice A) would worsen the condition. Administering calcium gluconate (Choice C) is a treatment option but is not the nurse's priority action. Restricting the client's potassium intake (Choice D) may be necessary but is not the immediate priority when facing a critical potassium level.

4. The nurse is caring for a client with a traumatic brain injury who is receiving mechanical ventilation. Which assessment finding indicates that the client may be experiencing increased intracranial pressure (ICP)?

• A. Client becomes increasingly lethargic
• B. Client's respiratory rate is 16 breaths per minute
• C. Client responds to verbal stimuli
• D. Client's pupils are equal and reactive

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Increased lethargy is a sign of worsening intracranial pressure, which can be life-threatening in clients with brain injuries. As ICP rises, it can lead to decreased level of consciousness, such as lethargy or even coma. Choices B, C, and D are not indicative of increased ICP. A normal respiratory rate, response to verbal stimuli, and equal reactive pupils do not specifically point towards increased intracranial pressure.

5. A client with heart failure is receiving furosemide. What assessment finding indicates the medication is effective?

• A. Increased urine output and weight loss.
• B. Increased heart rate and blood pressure.
• C. Decreased edema and improved peripheral pulses.
• D. Decreased shortness of breath and clear lung sounds.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Decreased edema and improved peripheral pulses.' In a client with heart failure, furosemide is a diuretic that helps reduce fluid overload. Therefore, a decrease in edema (swelling due to fluid retention) and improved peripheral pulses (indicating better circulation) are signs that the medication is effective. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Increased urine output and weight loss (Choice A) may indicate the diuretic effect of furosemide but do not specifically reflect its effectiveness in heart failure. Increased heart rate and blood pressure (Choice B) are not desired effects of furosemide and may suggest adverse reactions. Decreased shortness of breath and clear lung sounds (Choice D) are related to improved respiratory status and may not directly reflect the effectiveness of furosemide in addressing fluid overload.

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