HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Capstone
1. A client with pneumonia is receiving oxygen via nasal cannula at 2 L/min. What assessment finding indicates the need for further intervention?
- A. The client reports feeling short of breath.
- B. The client's oxygen saturation is 92%.
- C. The client's respiratory rate is 20 breaths per minute.
- D. The client is unable to complete sentences without pausing.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the inability to complete sentences without pausing indicates respiratory distress and the need for immediate intervention. This finding suggests an increased work of breathing and inadequate oxygenation. Choices A, B, and C are not as urgent as choice D. Feeling short of breath (choice A) is expected in pneumonia but does not necessarily indicate the need for immediate intervention. An oxygen saturation of 92% (choice B) is slightly below the normal range but may not require immediate intervention. A respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute (choice C) is within the normal range and does not signify an urgent need for intervention.
2. After placing a stethoscope as seen in the picture, the nurse auscultates S1 and S2 heart sounds. To determine if an S3 heart sound is present, what action should the nurse take first?
- A. Slide the stethoscope across the sternum.
- B. Move the stethoscope to the mitral site.
- C. Listen with the bell at the same location.
- D. Observe the cardiac telemetry monitor.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The nurse uses the bell of the stethoscope to hear low-pitched sounds such as S3 and S4. To determine if an S3 heart sound is present, the nurse should listen at the same location using the bell first. This allows for the accurate identification of low-pitched sounds. Moving the stethoscope across the sternum (Choice A) or to the mitral site (Choice B) would not be the initial actions to assess for an S3 heart sound. Observing the cardiac telemetry monitor (Choice D) is not relevant for assessing S3 heart sounds, as it does not provide direct auscultation of heart sounds.
3. A client with a history of chronic heart failure is prescribed spironolactone (Aldactone). Which of the following statements indicates that the client understands the medication teaching?
- A. I will avoid potassium-rich foods.
- B. I will not use a salt substitute.
- C. I will monitor my weight daily.
- D. I will increase my fluid intake as prescribed.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct statement is 'I will avoid potassium-rich foods.' Spironolactone (Aldactone) is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which can lead to hyperkalemia if potassium intake is not regulated. Therefore, avoiding potassium-rich foods is crucial to prevent this complication. Using a salt substitute can also increase potassium levels. Monitoring weight daily is essential in heart failure management, but it is not specific to spironolactone. Increasing fluid intake as prescribed is generally recommended for heart failure management but is not directly related to spironolactone use.
4. A child with cystic fibrosis is being discharged home with pancreatic enzyme replacement therapy. What information should the practical nurse reinforce with the parents?
- A. Give the enzymes after meals.
- B. Mix the enzymes with hot food or drinks.
- C. Enzymes should be taken before or with meals.
- D. Avoid giving enzymes with any food or drink.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Enzymes should be taken before or with meals.' Pancreatic enzymes should be taken before or with meals to assist with digestion in children with cystic fibrosis. This timing helps maximize the effectiveness of the enzymes in breaking down nutrients from food. Giving the enzymes after meals (choice A) may not provide the necessary support for digestion. Mixing the enzymes with hot food or drinks (choice B) is not recommended as it may affect the enzymes' efficacy. Avoiding giving enzymes with any food or drink (choice D) is incorrect as enzymes need to be taken in conjunction with meals to aid in digestion.
5. What is the most important assessment for the healthcare provider to conduct following the administration of epidural anesthesia to a client who is at 40-weeks gestation?
- A. Maternal blood pressure.
- B. Level of pain sensation
- C. Station of presenting part.
- D. Variability of fetal heart rate.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Following the administration of epidural anesthesia, the most crucial assessment for the healthcare provider to conduct is monitoring maternal blood pressure. Epidural anesthesia can lead to hypotension as a common side effect, which can have significant implications for both the mother and the fetus. Therefore, close monitoring of maternal blood pressure is essential to detect and manage any hypotensive episodes promptly. Choices B, C, and D are important assessments during labor and delivery, but in this specific scenario of post-epidural anesthesia, monitoring maternal blood pressure takes precedence due to the potential risk of hypotension.