HESI RN
RN HESI Exit Exam
1. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is scheduled for a renal biopsy. Which laboratory value is most concerning?
- A. Serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L
- B. Serum creatinine of 1.5 mg/dl
- C. Serum creatinine of 2.5 mg/dl
- D. White blood cell count of 8,000/mm3
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A serum creatinine level of 2.5 mg/dl is the most concerning laboratory value in a client with chronic kidney disease scheduled for a renal biopsy. An elevated serum creatinine level indicates impaired kidney function, which is critical information before performing a renal biopsy. Option A (Serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L) may be concerning for hyperkalemia but is not directly related to the renal biopsy procedure. Option B (Serum creatinine of 1.5 mg/dl) is within normal limits, suggesting relatively normal kidney function. Option D (White blood cell count of 8,000/mm3) is within the normal range and not directly related to the renal biopsy procedure or CKD management.
2. During a clinic visit, a client with a kidney transplant asks, 'What will happen if chronic rejection develops?' Which response is best for the nurse to provide?
- A. Dialysis would need to be resumed if chronic rejection becomes a reality.
- B. Immunosuppressive therapy would be intensified.
- C. A second transplant would be scheduled immediately.
- D. We would monitor your kidney function closely.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The best response for the nurse to provide is that dialysis would need to be resumed if chronic rejection becomes a reality. Chronic rejection of a transplanted kidney can lead to kidney failure, necessitating the need for dialysis until another transplant is possible. Choice B is incorrect because although immunosuppressive therapy may be adjusted, the immediate concern is the potential need for dialysis. Choice C is incorrect because scheduling a second transplant immediately is not typically the first step following chronic rejection. Choice D is also incorrect as close monitoring of kidney function is essential but does not address the immediate need for dialysis if chronic rejection occurs.
3. A 35-year-old female client has just been admitted to the post-anesthesia recovery unit following a partial thyroidectomy. Which statement reflects the nurse's accurate understanding of the expected outcome for the client following this surgery?
- A. Supplemental hormonal therapy will probably be unnecessary.
- B. The thyroid will regenerate to a normal size within a few years.
- C. The client will be restricted from eating seafood.
- D. The remainder of the thyroid will be removed at a later date.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: After a partial thyroidectomy, the client may be advised to avoid eating seafood due to its high iodine content, which can affect the thyroid function. Choice A is incorrect because after a partial thyroidectomy, supplemental hormonal therapy may be necessary. Choice B is incorrect as the thyroid does not regenerate after a partial thyroidectomy. Choice D is incorrect; the remaining portion of the thyroid is not typically removed at a later date unless there are specific medical reasons to do so.
4. A nurse is preparing to insert a nasogastric tube (NGT) in a client. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Assess the client's history for nasal trauma or surgery
- B. Ask the client to cough and deep breathe.
- C. Measure the length of the tube to be inserted.
- D. Explain the procedure to the client and obtain consent.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take when preparing to insert a nasogastric tube (NGT) in a client is to explain the procedure to the client and obtain consent. It is crucial to ensure that the client is informed about the procedure, understands it, and consents to it before proceeding. Assessing the client's history for nasal trauma or surgery (Choice A) is important but can be done after obtaining consent. Asking the client to cough and deep breathe (Choice B) is not directly related to the initial step of preparing for NGT insertion. Measuring the length of the tube to be inserted (Choice C) is a necessary step but should come after explaining the procedure and obtaining consent.
5. A nurse is preparing to administer a dose of digoxin (Lanoxin) to a client with heart failure. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Apical pulse of 58 beats per minute
- B. Blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg
- C. Presence of a new murmur
- D. Respiratory rate of 18 breaths per minute
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An apical pulse of 58 beats per minute is concerning when administering digoxin because digoxin can further lower the heart rate, leading to bradycardia or heart block. Immediate intervention is required to prevent potential complications. A blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg is within normal range and does not require immediate intervention in this context. The presence of a new murmur may indicate valvular issues but does not directly relate to the administration of digoxin. A respiratory rate of 18 breaths per minute is also within normal limits and is not a priority concern when administering digoxin.
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