the healthcare provider prescribes atenolol 50 mg daily for a client with angina pectoris which finding should the nurse report to the healthcare prov
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN Exit Exam 2023

1. The healthcare provider prescribes atenolol 50 mg daily for a client with angina pectoris. Which finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider before administering this medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Irregular pulse. An irregular pulse may indicate an arrhythmia, which could be exacerbated by atenolol, a beta-blocker used to treat angina pectoris. Atenolol works by slowing the heart rate, so if the patient already has an irregular pulse, it could worsen with the medication. Tachycardia (choice B) would actually be an expected finding in a patient with angina pectoris, and atenolol is used to help reduce the heart rate in such cases. Chest pain (choice C) is a symptom that atenolol is meant to alleviate, so it would not be a reason to withhold the medication. Urinary frequency (choice D) is not directly related to the administration of atenolol for angina pectoris and would not require immediate reporting to the healthcare provider.

2. The nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following a thyroidectomy. Which laboratory value should be monitored closely?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A serum potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L should be monitored closely in a client who is postoperative following a thyroidectomy to detect any electrolyte imbalances. After a thyroidectomy, there is a risk of hypokalemia due to the effects of anesthesia, stress response, and the surgical procedure itself. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial as hypokalemia can lead to cardiac arrhythmias and muscle weakness. Serum calcium, sodium, and chloride levels are important but not the primary focus following a thyroidectomy, making them incorrect choices.

3. The nurse is caring for a client with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) who is receiving mechanical ventilation. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A tidal volume of 300 ml is concerning in a client with ARDS on mechanical ventilation because it indicates hypoventilation, which can lead to inadequate gas exchange and worsening respiratory status. This finding requires immediate intervention to optimize ventilation and oxygenation. Options A, B, and D are not as critical in this scenario. An oxygen saturation of 90% may be acceptable depending on the client's baseline condition and the target range set by the healthcare provider. A respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute is slightly elevated but may not be immediately alarming. A blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg is within normal limits and does not require urgent intervention.

4. A client with newly diagnosed hypertension is being taught about lifestyle modifications by a nurse. Which client statement indicates a need for further teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Limiting caffeine intake is a positive lifestyle modification for managing hypertension. The statement indicates that the client understands the importance of reducing caffeine intake. Choices A, B, and C all reflect appropriate lifestyle modifications for managing hypertension, indicating good understanding by the client.

5. A client with type 2 diabetes is admitted with hyperglycemic hyperosmolar syndrome (HHS). Which laboratory value is most concerning?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with hyperglycemic hyperosmolar syndrome (HHS), a serum osmolarity of 320 mOsm/kg is the most concerning laboratory value. This high osmolarity indicates severe dehydration, which can lead to serious complications. Elevated serum glucose levels (choice A) are expected in HHS but do not directly reflect dehydration. Blood pressure (choice B) and serum pH (choice D) are important parameters to monitor but are not the most concerning values in HHS compared to serum osmolarity.

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