Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider prescribes atenolol 50 mg daily for a client with angina pectoris. Which finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider before administering this medication?

• A. Irregular pulse.
• B. Tachycardia.
• C. Chest pain.
• D. Urinary frequency.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Irregular pulse. An irregular pulse may indicate an arrhythmia, which could be exacerbated by atenolol, a beta-blocker used to treat angina pectoris. Atenolol works by slowing the heart rate, so if the patient already has an irregular pulse, it could worsen with the medication. Tachycardia (choice B) would actually be an expected finding in a patient with angina pectoris, and atenolol is used to help reduce the heart rate in such cases. Chest pain (choice C) is a symptom that atenolol is meant to alleviate, so it would not be a reason to withhold the medication. Urinary frequency (choice D) is not directly related to the administration of atenolol for angina pectoris and would not require immediate reporting to the healthcare provider.

2. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is admitted with hyperkalemia. Which assessment finding is most concerning?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Muscle weakness
• C. Peaked T waves on the ECG
• D. Decreased deep tendon reflexes

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Peaked T waves on the ECG. In hyperkalemia, elevated potassium levels can affect the heart's electrical activity, leading to changes on the ECG such as peaked T waves. This finding is concerning as it can progress to serious cardiac arrhythmias, including ventricular tachycardia and fibrillation. Bradycardia (choice A) and decreased deep tendon reflexes (choice D) are not typically associated with hyperkalemia. While muscle weakness (choice B) can occur in hyperkalemia due to its effect on neuromuscular function, the most concerning assessment finding indicating the need for immediate intervention in this scenario is peaked T waves on the ECG.

3. A client presents at the clinic with blepharitis. What instructions should the nurse provide for home care?

• A. Use bilateral eye patches while sleeping to prevent injury to the eyes.
• B. Wear sunglasses when outdoors to prevent photophobia.
• C. Apply cold compresses to reduce inflammation.
• D. Apply warm moist compresses then gently scrub eyelids with diluted baby shampoo.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Blepharitis is managed with warm moist compresses to help loosen debris and oils on the eyelids, followed by gentle scrubbing with a mild solution like diluted baby shampoo. This helps in controlling the condition. Choice A is incorrect as using eye patches while sleeping is not a standard recommendation for blepharitis. Choice B is incorrect as wearing sunglasses does not directly treat blepharitis but may help with light sensitivity. Choice C is incorrect as cold compresses are not typically used for blepharitis, as warm compresses are more effective in managing the condition.

4. The nurse reviews the laboratory findings of a client with an open fracture of the tibia. The white blood cell (WBC) count and erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) are elevated. Before reporting this information to the healthcare provider, what assessment should the nurse obtain?

• A. Appearance of wound
• B. Pain level
• C. Presence of fever
• D. Mobility status

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Appearance of wound. Elevated WBC and ESR levels suggest a possible infection in the client with an open fracture. Assessing the wound's appearance is crucial to evaluate for signs of infection, such as redness, warmth, swelling, or drainage. By assessing the wound first, the nurse can provide important information to the healthcare provider regarding the potential infection, which may require immediate intervention. Choices B, C, and D are important assessments in caring for a client with an open fracture; however, in this scenario, the priority is to assess the wound for signs of infection due to the elevated WBC and ESR levels.

5. A 12-year-old boy has a body mass index (BMI) of 28, a systolic pressure, and a glycosylated hemoglobin (HBA1C) of 7.8%. Which selection indicates that his mother understands the management of his diet?

• A. One whole-wheat bagel with cream cheese, two strips of bacon, six ounces of orange juice.
• B. Two eggs with toast and butter, 8 ounces of milk.
• C. Fresh fruit salad with low-fat yogurt.
• D. Pancakes with syrup and sausage links.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Fresh fruit salad with low-fat yogurt is a healthier choice for managing the diet of a 12-year-old boy with a high BMI and elevated HBA1C. This choice provides a good balance of nutrients, fiber, and low-fat content, helping to lower BMI and maintain healthy blood sugar levels. Choices A, B, and D are less ideal as they contain higher levels of refined carbohydrates, saturated fats, and sugars, which can contribute to weight gain and worsen blood sugar control in this scenario.

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