HESI RN
HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Quizlet
1. Which nursing intervention has the highest priority for a multigravida who delivered twins and is at risk for postpartum hemorrhage?
- A. Maintain cold packs on the perineum for 24 hours.
- B. Assess the client's pain level frequently.
- C. Observe for appropriate interaction with the infants.
- D. Assess fundal tone and lochia flow.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Assessing fundal tone and lochia flow is crucial in the early detection and prevention of postpartum hemorrhage. Fundal tone helps identify uterine atony, a common cause of postpartum hemorrhage, while monitoring lochia flow can indicate excessive bleeding. Cold packs on the perineum, although helpful for pain and swelling, are not the priority in this situation. Pain assessment and observing interactions with infants are important but secondary to assessing for signs of postpartum hemorrhage.
2. The nurse is caring for a client with acute pancreatitis who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which laboratory value should be monitored closely?
- A. Serum calcium
- B. Serum triglycerides
- C. Serum glucose
- D. Serum triglycerides
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Serum triglycerides should be monitored closely in a client receiving TPN as they may indicate hyperlipidemia, which is a potential complication of TPN. Monitoring serum triglycerides is essential to prevent complications such as hypertriglyceridemia. Serum calcium and glucose levels are also important to monitor in clients receiving TPN, but in this scenario, serum triglycerides take priority due to the risk of hyperlipidemia.
3. A client with pneumonia has arterial blood gases levels at: pH 7.33; PaCO2 49 mm/Hg; HCO3 25 mEq/L; PaO2 95. What intervention should the nurse implement based on these results?
- A. Institute coughing and deep breathing protocols.
- B. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula.
- C. Prepare for intubation and mechanical ventilation.
- D. Increase IV fluids to improve hydration.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The ABG results indicate respiratory acidosis due to an elevated PaCO2 (49 mm/Hg), indicating hypoventilation. The appropriate intervention for respiratory acidosis is to improve ventilation. Coughing and deep breathing protocols can help the client to effectively ventilate and improve gas exchange. Administering oxygen via nasal cannula (Choice B) may be necessary in respiratory distress situations, but addressing the underlying cause of hypoventilation is crucial. Intubation and mechanical ventilation (Choice C) are not the first-line interventions for uncomplicated respiratory acidosis. Increasing IV fluids (Choice D) does not directly address the respiratory acidosis present in this scenario.
4. A 46-year-old male client who had a myocardial infarction 24 hours ago comes to the nurse's station fully dressed and wanting to go home. He tells the nurse that he is feeling much better at this time. Based on this behavior, which nursing problem should the nurse formulate?
- A. Ineffective coping related to denial.
- B. Risk for impaired cardiac function.
- C. Noncompliance related to lack of knowledge.
- D. Anxiety related to hospitalization.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ineffective coping related to denial. The client's desire to leave the hospital shortly after a myocardial infarction despite the severity of the condition indicates denial and ineffective coping. This behavior could lead to complications as the client may not adequately address his health needs. Choice B, Risk for impaired cardiac function, is not the most appropriate nursing problem in this scenario as the client's behavior is more indicative of psychological coping issues rather than a direct physiological risk at this moment. Choice C, Noncompliance related to lack of knowledge, does not align with the client's behavior of wanting to leave the hospital. Choice D, Anxiety related to hospitalization, may not be the best option as the client's behavior is more suggestive of denial rather than anxiety about being hospitalized.
5. The healthcare provider prescribes ceftazidime (Fortaz) 35 mg every 8 hours IM for an infant. The 500 mg vial is labeled with the instruction to add 5.3 ml diluent to provide a concentration of 100 mg/ml. How many ml should the nurse administer for each dose?
- A. 0.35 ml
- B. 0.40 ml
- C. 0.50 ml
- D. 0.45 ml
Correct answer: B
Rationale: To calculate the volume to be administered for 35 mg of ceftazidime, divide the prescribed dose by the concentration: 35 mg / 100 mg/ml = 0.35 ml. Rounding off, the nurse should administer 0.4 ml for each dose. Choice A is incorrect as it doesn't consider rounding off. Choice C is incorrect because it's not the correct calculation. Choice D is incorrect as it doesn't reflect the accurate volume needed.
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