the nurse is administering an iv medication to a client with a history of anaphylaxis which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Quizlet

1. The nurse is administering an IV medication to a client with a history of anaphylaxis. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Keeping emergency resuscitation equipment at the bedside is crucial in case the client experiences anaphylaxis during the infusion. While staying with the client throughout the infusion (Choice A) is important, having immediate access to emergency equipment takes priority in this situation. Obtaining the client's allergy history (Choice C) and asking about past allergic reactions to medications (Choice D) are relevant but do not address the immediate need for emergency intervention in case of anaphylaxis.

2. Which nursing intervention has the highest priority for a multigravida who delivered twins and is at risk for postpartum hemorrhage?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Assessing fundal tone and lochia flow is crucial in the early detection and prevention of postpartum hemorrhage. Fundal tone helps identify uterine atony, a common cause of postpartum hemorrhage, while monitoring lochia flow can indicate excessive bleeding. Cold packs on the perineum, although helpful for pain and swelling, are not the priority in this situation. Pain assessment and observing interactions with infants are important but secondary to assessing for signs of postpartum hemorrhage.

3. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is receiving supplemental oxygen. Which clinical finding requires immediate intervention?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Use of accessory muscles. In a client with COPD receiving supplemental oxygen, the use of accessory muscles is a critical finding that requires immediate intervention. This observation indicates increased work of breathing, suggesting respiratory distress. Addressing this issue promptly is crucial to prevent further respiratory compromise. Choice A, oxygen saturation of 90%, is slightly below the normal range but may not require immediate intervention unless it continues to decrease. Choice B, a respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute, is within normal limits for an adult and does not indicate an urgent issue. Choice D, inspiratory crackles, may be present in COPD due to secretions or inflammation but do not necessitate immediate intervention unless associated with other concerning signs.

4. A client with cirrhosis is admitted with ascites and jaundice. Which assessment finding is most concerning?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Confusion and altered mental status are concerning signs of hepatic encephalopathy in a client with cirrhosis. Hepatic encephalopathy is a serious complication of liver disease that requires immediate intervention. Peripheral edema may be present due to fluid accumulation, increased abdominal girth can indicate ascites which is common in cirrhosis, and yellowing of the skin is a typical manifestation of jaundice in liver dysfunction, all of which are important but not as immediately concerning as signs of hepatic encephalopathy.

5. A client with a history of chronic kidney disease (CKD) is admitted with hyperkalemia. Which clinical finding is most concerning?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Peaked T waves on the ECG are the most concerning finding in a client with hyperkalemia. Hyperkalemia can lead to serious cardiac complications, including arrhythmias and cardiac arrest. Peaked T waves are a classic ECG finding associated with hyperkalemia and indicate the need for immediate intervention. Bradycardia, muscle weakness, and decreased deep tendon reflexes can also be seen in hyperkalemia, but the presence of peaked T waves signifies a higher risk of cardiac events, making it the most concerning finding in this scenario.

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