Nursing Elites

1. At 0600 while admitting a woman for a scheduled repeat cesarean section (C-Section), the client tells the nurse that she drank a cup of coffee at 0400 because she wanted to avoid getting a headache. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Ensure preoperative lab results are available
• B. Start prescribed IV with lactated Ringer's
• C. Inform the anesthesia care provider
• D. Contact the client's obstetrician

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first is to inform the anesthesia care provider. The patient's ingestion of coffee violates the NPO (nothing by mouth) guidelines before surgery, which increases the risk of aspiration during anesthesia. Informing the anesthesia care provider promptly allows for appropriate assessment and decision-making regarding the patient's anesthesia plan. Ensuring preoperative lab results, starting an IV, or contacting the obstetrician can be important steps but addressing the NPO violation and its implications on anesthesia safety take precedence.

2. The nurse is assessing a client with left-sided heart failure. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Shortness of breath
• B. Jugular venous distention
• C. Crackles in the lungs
• D. Peripheral edema

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Crackles in the lungs indicate pulmonary congestion in a client with left-sided heart failure and require immediate intervention to prevent respiratory failure. Crackles suggest fluid accumulation in the lungs, leading to impaired gas exchange and potentially respiratory distress. Shortness of breath, jugular venous distention, and peripheral edema are common manifestations of heart failure but do not directly indicate acute respiratory compromise like crackles in the lungs do.

3. The nurse is caring for a client with a tracheostomy who has thick, tenacious secretions. Which assessment finding is most concerning?

• A. Crepitus around the tracheostomy site
• B. Dry and cracked tracheostomy site
• C. Yellowing of the skin around the tracheostomy site
• D. Mucous plugging of the tracheostomy tube

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Mucous plugging of the tracheostomy tube is the most concerning finding in a client with a tracheostomy and thick secretions. This can lead to airway obstruction, which requires immediate intervention to maintain a patent airway. Crepitus around the tracheostomy site may indicate subcutaneous emphysema but does not pose an immediate threat to the airway. A dry and cracked tracheostomy site may require interventions to promote healing but is not as urgent as mucous plugging. Yellowing of the skin around the tracheostomy site could indicate infection or impaired circulation, which should be addressed but does not pose the same immediate risk as airway obstruction.

4. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is admitted with a new onset of confusion. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?

• A. International Normalized Ratio (INR)
• B. Serum glucose level
• C. White blood cell count
• D. Prothrombin time (PT)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: International Normalized Ratio (INR). The INR should be closely monitored in a client with atrial fibrillation to assess the effectiveness and safety of anticoagulation therapy with warfarin. Monitoring the INR helps to ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range to prevent complications such as thrombosis or bleeding. Choices B, C, and D are less relevant in this scenario. While serum glucose levels are important in assessing metabolic status, and white blood cell count and prothrombin time are important indicators for other conditions, they are not the primary focus when a client with atrial fibrillation presents with confusion.

5. When caring for a client with traumatic brain injury (TBI) who had a craniotomy for increased intracranial pressure (ICP), the nurse assesses the client using the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) every two hours. For the past 8 hours, the client's GCS score has been 14. What does this GCS finding indicate about the client?

• A. Neurologically stable without indications of increased ICP.
• B. At risk for neurological deterioration.
• C. Experiencing mild cognitive impairment.
• D. In need of immediate medical intervention.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A GCS score of 14 indicates that the client is neurologically stable without indications of increased ICP. It suggests that the client's neurological status is relatively intact, with only mild impairment, if any. This finding reassures the nurse that there are currently no signs of deterioration or immediate need for intervention. Choice B is incorrect because a GCS score of 14 does not necessarily indicate immediate risk for neurological deterioration. Choice C is incorrect as mild cognitive impairment is not typically inferred from a GCS score of 14. Choice D is incorrect as immediate medical intervention is not warranted based on a GCS score of 14 without other concerning symptoms.

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