Nursing Elites

1. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of septic shock. Which clinical finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Blood pressure of 90/60 mmHg
• B. Temperature of 100.4°F
• C. Heart rate of 120 beats per minute
• D. Urine output of 30 ml/hour

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with septic shock, a heart rate of 120 beats per minute is a critical clinical finding that requires immediate intervention. A rapid heart rate can indicate worsening sepsis and inadequate tissue perfusion. Correcting the underlying cause of the tachycardia and stabilizing the heart rate is crucial in managing septic shock. The other options, while important, do not represent an immediate threat to the patient's condition. A blood pressure of 90/60 mmHg may be expected in septic shock, a temperature of 100.4°F is mildly elevated, and a urine output of 30 ml/hour, though decreased, may not be an immediate concern in the context of septic shock.

2. The healthcare provider prescribes atenolol 50 mg daily for a client with angina pectoris. Which finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider before administering this medication?

• A. Irregular pulse.
• B. Tachycardia.
• C. Chest pain.
• D. Urinary frequency.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Irregular pulse. An irregular pulse may indicate an arrhythmia, which could be exacerbated by atenolol, a beta-blocker used to treat angina pectoris. Atenolol works by slowing the heart rate, so if the patient already has an irregular pulse, it could worsen with the medication. Tachycardia (choice B) would actually be an expected finding in a patient with angina pectoris, and atenolol is used to help reduce the heart rate in such cases. Chest pain (choice C) is a symptom that atenolol is meant to alleviate, so it would not be a reason to withhold the medication. Urinary frequency (choice D) is not directly related to the administration of atenolol for angina pectoris and would not require immediate reporting to the healthcare provider.

3. A male client reports the onset of numbness and tingling in his fingers and around his mouth. Which lab test is important for the nurse to review before contacting the healthcare provider?

• A. Capillary glucose
• B. Urine specific gravity
• C. Serum calcium
• D. White blood cell count

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Serum calcium. Numbness and tingling in the fingers and around the mouth are indicative of hypocalcemia. Serum calcium levels should be reviewed as they play a crucial role in diagnosing and managing hypocalcemia. Option A, capillary glucose, is not relevant to the symptoms described. Option B, urine specific gravity, is not typically used to assess numbness and tingling. Option D, white blood cell count, is unrelated to the symptoms presented by the client.

4. The nurse observes an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) positioning a newly admitted client who has a seizure disorder. The client is supine, and the UAP is placing soft pillows along the side rails. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Ensure that the UAP has positioned the pillows effectively to protect the client.
• B. Instruct the UAP to obtain soft blankets to secure to the side rails instead of pillows.
• C. Assume responsibility for placing the pillows while the UAP completes another task.
• D. Ask the UAP to use some of the pillows to prop the client in a side-lying position.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse should instruct the UAP to pad the side rails with soft blankets instead of pillows. Placing pillows along the side rails could lead to suffocation during a seizure and would need to be removed promptly. Instructing the UAP to use soft blankets is safer as they can help prevent injury without posing a risk of suffocation. Ensuring effective placement of the pillows (Choice A) is not appropriate as pillows should not be used in this situation. Assuming responsibility for placing the pillows (Choice C) or propping the client in a side-lying position with pillows (Choice D) are both unsafe actions and could potentially harm the client.

5. The nurse is caring for a client with a history of myocardial infarction who is experiencing chest pain. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer oxygen therapy as prescribed.
• B. Obtain an electrocardiogram (ECG).
• C. Administer nitroglycerin sublingually as prescribed.
• D. Administer aspirin as prescribed.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering oxygen therapy is the priority intervention in managing chest pain in a client with a history of myocardial infarction. Oxygen helps improve oxygenation to the heart muscle, which is crucial in reducing further damage. Obtaining an electrocardiogram (ECG) is important to assess for changes indicative of myocardial infarction, but providing oxygen takes precedence as it directly addresses the physiological need for oxygen. Administering nitroglycerin and aspirin are important interventions but are typically implemented after oxygen therapy to address vasodilation and antiplatelet effects, respectively.

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