Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of heart failure is admitted with severe dyspnea. Which laboratory result requires immediate intervention?

• A. Blood glucose of 150 mg/dL.
• B. Serum potassium of 3.5 mEq/L.
• C. Serum creatinine of 1.0 mg/dL.
• D. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) of 20 mg/dL.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A serum creatinine level of 1.0 mg/dL is within the normal range. However, in a client with heart failure and severe dyspnea, fluid retention is a significant concern. An elevated serum creatinine level may indicate impaired kidney function, which can worsen fluid overload. Therefore, immediate intervention is required to prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges and not indicative of immediate intervention in this scenario.

2. A primipara with a breech presentation is in the transition phase of labor. The nurse visualizes the perineum and sees the umbilical cord extruding from the introitus. In which position should the nurse place the client?

• A. Supine with the foot of the bed raised.
• B. On the left side with legs elevated.
• C. On the right side with legs elevated.
• D. Prone with head elevated.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the scenario of a primipara with a breech presentation and a prolapsed umbilical cord, the nurse should place the client in the supine position with the foot of the bed raised (Trendelenburg position). This position helps alleviate gravitational pressure by the fetus on the cord, preventing compression and reducing the risk of cord prolapse complications. Placing the client on the left or right side with legs elevated or in a prone position with the head elevated would not be appropriate in this situation, as they do not effectively relieve the pressure on the umbilical cord.

3. A client with chronic kidney disease is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which finding indicates that the therapy is effective?

• A. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL.
• B. Reticulocyte count of 1%.
• C. Blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg.
• D. Serum ferritin level of 100 ng/mL.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL. Erythropoietin therapy stimulates red blood cell production, leading to an increase in hemoglobin levels. A hemoglobin level of 12 g/dL indicates that the therapy is effective in managing anemia associated with chronic kidney disease. Choice B, a reticulocyte count of 1%, is not a direct indicator of the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy. Choice C, a blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg, is important to monitor in clients with chronic kidney disease but does not specifically indicate the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy. Choice D, a serum ferritin level of 100 ng/mL, is related to iron stores in the body and may be monitored during erythropoietin therapy but does not directly reflect the therapy's effectiveness in increasing red blood cell production.

4. The healthcare provider is preparing to administer atropine, an anticholinergic, to a client scheduled for a cholecystectomy. The client asks the provider to explain the reason for the prescribed medication. What response is best for the provider to provide?

• A. To increase gastric motility.
• B. To decrease the risk of bradycardia during surgery.
• C. To reduce secretions.
• D. To prevent nausea and vomiting.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Atropine, an anticholinergic medication, is used preoperatively to prevent bradycardia by increasing the automaticity of the sinoatrial node during surgical anesthesia. Choice A is incorrect because atropine does not affect gastric motility. Choice C is incorrect as atropine is not primarily used to reduce secretions. Choice D is also incorrect because preventing nausea and vomiting is not the primary purpose of administering atropine in this context.

5. A nurse starts classes for clients with type 2 diabetes. Which information would the nurse use as an outcome evaluation for the class?

• A. Parking convenience for attendees continues to be a major concern.
• B. Fasting blood glucose average readings were 20% lower by the end of classes.
• C. Discussion of food exchanges and calories was a well-attended class.
• D. Demonstrating the use of a blood glucose meter was an effective teaching strategy.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A reduction in fasting blood glucose levels indicates the effectiveness of the diabetes management education provided. Monitoring blood glucose levels is a crucial aspect of diabetes management, and a decrease in average readings signifies improvement in managing blood sugar levels. Choices A, C, and D are not direct outcome evaluations related to the effectiveness of the education provided in managing diabetes. Parking convenience, attendance, and teaching strategies are not direct indicators of the impact on the clients' health outcomes.

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