Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of heart failure is admitted with severe dyspnea. Which laboratory result requires immediate intervention?

• A. Blood glucose of 150 mg/dL.
• B. Serum potassium of 3.5 mEq/L.
• C. Serum creatinine of 1.0 mg/dL.
• D. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) of 20 mg/dL.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A serum creatinine level of 1.0 mg/dL is within the normal range. However, in a client with heart failure and severe dyspnea, fluid retention is a significant concern. An elevated serum creatinine level may indicate impaired kidney function, which can worsen fluid overload. Therefore, immediate intervention is required to prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges and not indicative of immediate intervention in this scenario.

2. A female adult walks into a local community health clinic and tells the nurse that she is homeless and cannot seem to find help. Which statement indicates to the nurse that a client is feeling separated from society and helpless?

• A. "I'm feeling really isolated from everyone and scared."
• B. "I feel like I cannot get enough food to live any longer."
• C. "I know that I will always be poor so what's the use of trying?"
• D. "People like me are never respected, no matter how well we do."

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Choice A is the correct answer because the statement reflects a sense of isolation and helplessness, indicating a profound emotional and social disconnect. The client expresses feeling separated from others and scared, highlighting a deep emotional distress. Choices B, C, and D touch on different issues such as food insecurity, hopelessness about poverty, and lack of respect, but they do not specifically address the feelings of isolation and helplessness mentioned in the client's statement.

3. A female client is admitted with a tentative diagnosis of Guillain-Barre syndrome. Which finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Facial weakness and difficulty speaking.
• B. Decreased deep tendon reflexes in the legs.
• C. Inability to move the eyes.
• D. Respiratory distress and cyanosis.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In Guillain-Barre syndrome, decreased deep tendon reflexes are a critical finding that may indicate impending respiratory failure. This is due to the involvement of the peripheral nervous system affecting the muscles, including those involved in breathing. Reporting decreased deep tendon reflexes promptly is essential to prevent respiratory compromise. Facial weakness, difficulty speaking, and inability to move the eyes are common manifestations of Guillain-Barre syndrome but are not as immediately concerning as respiratory distress and impending respiratory failure.

4. During the physical assessment, which finding should the nurse recognize as a normal finding?

• A. Regular pulsation at the epigastric area when the client is supine.
• B. A loud, harsh murmur at the second right intercostal space.
• C. Dullness over the lung fields.
• D. Increased tactile fremitus.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The regular pulsation at the epigastric area when the client is supine is a normal finding. This phenomenon is caused by the regular and recurrent expansion and contraction of an artery due to waves of pressure caused by the ejection of blood from the left ventricle. Choices B, C, and D describe abnormal findings during a physical assessment. A loud, harsh murmur at the second right intercostal space indicates an abnormal heart sound, dullness over the lung fields may suggest consolidation or fluid in the lungs, and increased tactile fremitus can be a sign of lung consolidation or pathology.

5. A client with a history of epilepsy is admitted with status epilepticus. Which medication should the nurse prepare to administer?

• A. Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
• B. Lorazepam (Ativan)
• C. Phenytoin (Dilantin)
• D. Carbamazepine (Tegretol)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the management of status epilepticus, the initial medication of choice is a benzodiazepine such as lorazepam (Ativan) to rapidly terminate the seizure activity. Lorazepam acts quickly and effectively in stopping seizures. Phenytoin (Dilantin) is often used as a second-line agent for status epilepticus, and carbamazepine (Tegretol) is not typically indicated for the acute treatment of status epilepticus. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) is a pain reliever and antipyretic but is not used in the treatment of status epilepticus.

Similar Questions