Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of heart failure is admitted with severe dyspnea. Which laboratory result requires immediate intervention?

• A. Blood glucose of 150 mg/dL.
• B. Serum potassium of 3.5 mEq/L.
• C. Serum creatinine of 1.0 mg/dL.
• D. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) of 20 mg/dL.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A serum creatinine level of 1.0 mg/dL is within the normal range. However, in a client with heart failure and severe dyspnea, fluid retention is a significant concern. An elevated serum creatinine level may indicate impaired kidney function, which can worsen fluid overload. Therefore, immediate intervention is required to prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges and not indicative of immediate intervention in this scenario.

2. A client with a history of asthma is admitted with shortness of breath. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Expiratory wheezes.
• B. Increased respiratory rate.
• C. Absence of breath sounds.
• D. Frequent coughing.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Absence of breath sounds. This finding is concerning in a client with asthma as it may indicate a severe asthma exacerbation, airway obstruction, or pneumothorax, all of which require immediate intervention. Absence of breath sounds suggests a lack of airflow in the lungs, which is a critical sign that should prompt immediate action. Expiratory wheezes (choice A) are common in asthma and may not warrant immediate intervention unless severe. An increased respiratory rate (choice B) is expected in a client with asthma experiencing shortness of breath, but it does not indicate an immediate threat to the airway. Frequent coughing (choice D) is a common symptom in asthma exacerbations but does not signify an immediate need for intervention as it can be managed with appropriate asthma treatments.

3. The nurse is caring for a client with a nasogastric tube to continuous suction. Which electrolyte imbalance should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Hypercalcemia.
• B. Hypokalemia.
• C. Hyponatremia.
• D. Hypomagnesemia.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypokalemia. When a client has a nasogastric tube to continuous suction, potassium loss through gastric fluids can lead to hypokalemia. Hypercalcemia (Choice A) is not typically associated with continuous suction. Hyponatremia (Choice C) involves sodium imbalance and is not directly related to nasogastric suction. Hypomagnesemia (Choice D) is not the primary concern in this situation, as potassium loss is more significant with gastric suction.

4. A homeless client with alcohol dependency will be dismissed from the emergency department in 24 hours. The nurse notes that a tuberculin skin test was prescribed by the healthcare provider. What intervention is most important for the nurse to implement prior to discharge?

• A. Identify how the client will follow-up to have the results read
• B. Give the client written information about the tuberculosis test
• C. Determine if the client understands the purpose of the tuberculin test
• D. Explain to the client results should be read between 48 and 72 hours

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most important intervention for the nurse to implement prior to the discharge of a homeless client with alcohol dependency who had a tuberculin skin test prescribed is to identify how the client will follow-up to have the results read. This is crucial to ensure proper diagnosis and treatment. Providing written information (Choice B) is helpful but not as critical as ensuring the follow-up plan. Determining if the client understands the purpose of the test (Choice C) is important but not as immediate as ensuring the follow-up plan. Explaining when the results should be read (Choice D) is important, but the priority is to make sure the client has a plan in place for follow-up.

5. The nurse is planning a health education program for 10-year-olds. Which setting is most likely to increase the preadolescents' participation in the program?

• A. the school classroom
• B. community center
• C. home of one of the children
• D. a local place of worship

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The school classroom is the most suitable setting to increase preadolescents' participation in a health education program. At the age of 10, children are accustomed to the school environment, making it familiar and comfortable for them. This familiarity can help reduce anxiety and increase engagement during the program. Community centers may be less familiar and could pose distractions, potentially reducing participation. Conducting the program at the home of one of the children may lead to unequal access for other participants and may not provide the necessary facilities for an educational session. A local place of worship may not be perceived as a neutral or suitable environment for a health education program, potentially hindering participation.

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