HESI RN
HESI Community Health
1. A client with a history of heart failure is admitted with severe dyspnea. Which laboratory result requires immediate intervention?
- A. Blood glucose of 150 mg/dL.
- B. Serum potassium of 3.5 mEq/L.
- C. Serum creatinine of 1.0 mg/dL.
- D. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) of 20 mg/dL.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. A serum creatinine level of 1.0 mg/dL is within the normal range. However, in a client with heart failure and severe dyspnea, fluid retention is a significant concern. An elevated serum creatinine level may indicate impaired kidney function, which can worsen fluid overload. Therefore, immediate intervention is required to prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges and not indicative of immediate intervention in this scenario.
2. A client with a history of peptic ulcer disease is admitted with severe epigastric pain. Which finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Nausea and vomiting.
- B. Hematemesis.
- C. Melena.
- D. Rebound tenderness.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In a client with a history of peptic ulcer disease presenting with severe epigastric pain, the finding that requires immediate intervention is rebound tenderness. Rebound tenderness can indicate peritonitis, a serious condition that necessitates immediate medical attention. Nausea and vomiting, hematemesis, and melena are also concerning symptoms in a client with a history of peptic ulcer disease, but they do not signify the urgency of intervention as rebound tenderness does.
3. The nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I will use my albuterol inhaler before exercising.
- B. I will avoid secondhand smoke.
- C. I will get a flu shot every year.
- D. I will limit my fluid intake to 2 liters per day.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Using an albuterol inhaler before exercising is appropriate for clients with COPD to prevent exercise-induced bronchospasm.
4. A client who is receiving intravenous heparin therapy has an activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) of 90 seconds. Which action should the nurse take?
- A. Continue the heparin infusion as prescribed.
- B. Decrease the heparin infusion rate.
- C. Increase the heparin infusion rate.
- D. Stop the heparin infusion and notify the healthcare provider.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: An aPTT of 90 seconds is significantly elevated, indicating a high risk of bleeding due to excessive anticoagulation. In this case, the heparin infusion should be stopped immediately to prevent further anticoagulation and an increased bleeding risk. Notifying the healthcare provider is essential to discuss alternative anticoagulation strategies or interventions. Continuing heparin therapy without action could lead to severe bleeding complications. Decreasing or increasing the heparin infusion rate would exacerbate the risk of bleeding, making options A, B, and C incorrect.
5. Which bioterrorism agent is at high risk for use as a potential biological weapon that is readily transmitted by several portals of entry?
- A. anthrax
- B. smallpox
- C. botulism
- D. tularemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Anthrax is the correct answer. Anthrax spores can be transmitted through inhalation, ingestion, or skin contact, making it a high-risk agent for bioterrorism. Smallpox, botulism, and tularemia are also potential bioterrorism agents, but they do not have the same versatility in terms of multiple portals of entry, unlike anthrax.
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