a client with a history of heart failure is admitted with severe dyspnea which laboratory result requires immediate intervention
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Community Health

1. A client with a history of heart failure is admitted with severe dyspnea. Which laboratory result requires immediate intervention?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A serum creatinine level of 1.0 mg/dL is within the normal range. However, in a client with heart failure and severe dyspnea, fluid retention is a significant concern. An elevated serum creatinine level may indicate impaired kidney function, which can worsen fluid overload. Therefore, immediate intervention is required to prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges and not indicative of immediate intervention in this scenario.

2. Following an emergency Cesarean delivery, the nurse encourages the new mother to breastfeed her newborn. The client asks why she should breastfeed now. Which information should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'To stimulate contraction of the uterus.' After delivery, breastfeeding helps in stimulating the release of oxytocin, which triggers the contraction of the uterus. This contraction is crucial to prevent uterine hemorrhage and facilitate the involution process. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. While breastfeeding can indeed help in bonding with the baby and promoting milk production, in the immediate postpartum period after a Cesarean section, the priority is to ensure uterine contraction to prevent complications.

3. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin) therapy. Which laboratory result indicates that the therapy is effective?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An International Normalized Ratio (INR) of 2.5 indicates that warfarin therapy is within the therapeutic range for a client with atrial fibrillation. A lower INR (such as 1.0) would suggest subtherapeutic levels, risking blood clots. Prothrombin time (PT) and partial thromboplastin time (PTT) are not specific to monitoring warfarin therapy.

4. The nurse obtains a heart rate of 92 and a blood pressure of 110/76 before administering a scheduled dose of verapamil (Calan) for a client with atrial flutter. Which action should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action is to administer the dose as prescribed. Verapamil slows sinoatrial nodal automaticity and delays atrioventricular nodal conduction, which helps in slowing the ventricular rate. The heart rate of 92 and blood pressure of 110/76 are within an acceptable range for administering verapamil in a client with atrial flutter. Holding the medication, calling the healthcare provider, or repeating the vital signs in 30 minutes are not necessary based on the vital signs obtained and the action of verapamil in this scenario.

5. Which annual screening should the nurse include when planning eye health programs at a preschool?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: visual acuity. Screening for visual acuity is essential in preschoolers to identify any vision issues early on, such as nearsightedness or farsightedness, which may require corrective lenses or other interventions. Red light reflex (choice B) is a method used to assess the eyes for abnormalities, but it is not typically included in routine preschool eye health screenings. Conjunctivitis (choice C) is an eye infection and not a screening test. Glaucoma (choice D) is a condition more commonly associated with adults and the elderly, making it less relevant for preschool eye health programs.

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