HESI RN
Community Health HESI 2023 Quizlet
1. The healthcare provider is developing a community outreach program to address childhood obesity. Which intervention should the healthcare provider implement first?
- A. conduct a survey to assess dietary habits and physical activity levels
- B. develop educational materials on healthy eating and exercise
- C. partner with local schools to promote physical activity programs
- D. organize community events that encourage healthy lifestyle choices
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Conducting a survey to assess dietary habits and physical activity levels should be the initial step in developing a community outreach program to address childhood obesity. By gathering data through a survey, the healthcare provider can identify specific needs, preferences, and challenges within the community. This information is crucial for designing tailored interventions that are more likely to be effective. Developing educational materials (Choice B) can come after understanding the community's needs through the survey. Partnering with local schools (Choice C) and organizing community events (Choice D) are important strategies but should be planned based on the data obtained from the survey to ensure relevance and impact.
2. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with a chest tube. Which observation indicates that the chest tube is functioning effectively?
- A. Continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber.
- B. Intermittent bubbling in the suction control chamber.
- C. No fluctuation (tidaling) in the water-seal chamber.
- D. Drainage of clear, pale yellow fluid from the chest tube.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Intermittent bubbling in the suction control chamber is the correct observation indicating effective functioning of the chest tube. This bubbling signifies that the suction system is working correctly and maintaining the desired negative pressure in the pleural space. Continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber suggests an air leak, which is not a normal finding. No fluctuation (tidaling) in the water-seal chamber may indicate a blockage or lack of communication between the pleural space and the water-seal, which is not ideal. Drainage of clear, pale yellow fluid from the chest tube is a normal finding, but it does not specifically indicate the effectiveness of the chest tube function.
3. A client with a history of alcohol abuse is admitted with cirrhosis. Which finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Jaundice.
- B. Ascites.
- C. Peripheral edema.
- D. Spider angiomas.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Peripheral edema in a client with cirrhosis can indicate fluid overload and worsening liver function, necessitating immediate intervention to prevent further complications such as respiratory distress, cardiac issues, or renal impairment. Jaundice (choice A) is a common manifestation of cirrhosis but may not require immediate intervention unless severe. Ascites (choice B) is also a common complication of cirrhosis that may require intervention but is not as urgent as addressing peripheral edema. Spider angiomas (choice D) are typically benign skin lesions associated with cirrhosis but do not require immediate intervention unless bleeding or rupture occurs.
4. A client with a history of coronary artery disease is admitted with chest pain. Which finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Heart rate of 90 beats per minute.
- B. Blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg.
- C. Respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute.
- D. Chest pain radiating to the left arm.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Chest pain radiating to the left arm can be a sign of myocardial infarction (heart attack) and requires immediate intervention. This symptom is known as a classic presentation of a heart attack and warrants urgent medical attention to prevent further cardiac damage. Choices A, B, and C are not directly indicative of an acute cardiac event and may not require immediate intervention in this scenario. While heart rate, blood pressure, and respiratory rate are important vital signs to monitor, they do not specifically indicate the urgency associated with chest pain radiating to the left arm in a patient with a history of coronary artery disease.
5. A client with a history of chronic kidney disease is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which finding indicates that the therapy is effective?
- A. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL.
- B. Reticulocyte count of 1%.
- C. Blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg.
- D. Serum ferritin level of 100 ng/mL.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. A hemoglobin level of 12 g/dL is an indicator of effective erythropoietin therapy as it shows an increase in red blood cell production. Reticulocyte count (choice B) reflects the bone marrow's response to anemia but does not directly confirm the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy. Blood pressure (choice C) and serum ferritin level (choice D) are not specific indicators of the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy for chronic kidney disease.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI RN Basic
$89/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access