Nursing Elites

1. While assessing a client receiving a blood transfusion, which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Temperature of 100.4°F (38°C).
• B. Blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg.
• C. Heart rate of 90 beats per minute.
• D. Complaints of feeling cold.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A heart rate of 90 beats per minute requires immediate intervention when assessing a client receiving a blood transfusion. This finding can indicate a potential transfusion reaction, such as a hemolytic reaction or fluid overload, which requires prompt evaluation and management to prevent serious complications. While a temperature of 100.4°F (38°C) may indicate a mild fever, it is not typically an immediate concern during a blood transfusion. A blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg is within the normal range and does not necessitate immediate intervention. Complaints of feeling cold can be addressed but do not indicate an urgent need for intervention compared to the critical nature of a potential transfusion reaction indicated by an elevated heart rate.

2. When developing a program to support caregivers of elderly patients, which topic should be prioritized in the first session?

• A. Managing medication schedules
• B. Recognizing signs of caregiver burnout
• C. Effective communication with healthcare providers
• D. Navigating insurance and financial issues

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Recognizing signs of caregiver burnout is the most critical topic to prioritize in the first session. Caregiver burnout can have detrimental effects on both the caregiver and the elderly patient's well-being. By addressing this issue early on, caregivers can learn to identify the signs of burnout, take necessary steps to prevent it, and ensure they can continue providing effective care for their loved ones. Managing medication schedules, effective communication with healthcare providers, and navigating insurance and financial issues are also important aspects to cover in the program. However, recognizing signs of caregiver burnout is essential for the overall health and quality of care provided by the caregivers.

3. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen therapy. Which finding indicates that the therapy is effective?

• A. The client is able to expectorate secretions easily.
• B. The client's oxygen saturation is 92%.
• C. The client's respiratory rate is 20 breaths per minute.
• D. The client's arterial blood gases show a pH of 7.35.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with COPD receiving oxygen therapy, an effective response is indicated by a respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute. This suggests that the client is effectively oxygenating while maintaining an appropriate respiratory rate. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because expectorating secretions easily, having an oxygen saturation of 92%, and arterial blood gases showing a pH of 7.35 are not specific indicators of the effectiveness of oxygen therapy in COPD. Oxygen saturation of 92% may still be suboptimal in COPD, and arterial blood gases showing a pH of 7.35 may not necessarily reflect the overall effectiveness of oxygen therapy.

4. The nurse is developing a series of childbirth preparation classes for primigravida women and their significant others. What is the priority expected outcome for these classes?

• A. Participants can identify at least three coping strategies to use during labor.
• B. Participants can list signs of labor and when to come to the hospital.
• C. Participants can describe three pain relief measures to use during labor.
• D. Participants can perform three relaxation techniques to use during labor.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority expected outcome for childbirth preparation classes is for participants to be able to identify coping strategies to use during labor. This is crucial as coping strategies can help women manage pain, stress, and anxiety during childbirth. Choice B is important but does not focus on coping strategies needed during labor. Choice C is relevant but focuses solely on pain relief measures which are a part of coping strategies. Choice D is also relevant but does not encompass all aspects of coping with labor effectively.

5. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Oxygen saturation of 88%.
• B. Use of accessory muscles for breathing.
• C. Respiratory rate of 26 breaths per minute.
• D. Barrel-shaped chest.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 26 breaths per minute is an abnormal finding and indicates that the client is experiencing respiratory distress, requiring immediate intervention. This rapid respiratory rate can signify inadequate oxygenation and ventilation. Oxygen saturation of 88% is low but not as immediately concerning as a high respiratory rate, which indicates the body is compensating for respiratory distress. The use of accessory muscles for breathing and a barrel-shaped chest are typical findings in clients with COPD but do not indicate an immediate need for intervention as they are more chronic in nature and may be seen in stable COPD patients.

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