HESI RN
Community Health HESI 2023 Quizlet
1. A client who is taking clonidine (Catapres, Duraclon) reports drowsiness. Which additional assessment should the nurse make?
- A. How long has the client been taking the medication?
- B. Assess the client's dietary habits.
- C. Check for signs of infection.
- D. Evaluate the client's sleep pattern.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. When a client reports drowsiness while taking clonidine, the nurse should assess how long the client has been taking the medication. Drowsiness is a common side effect that can occur in the early weeks of treatment with clonidine. By understanding the duration of medication use, the nurse can determine if the drowsiness is a temporary effect that may decrease over time. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because assessing the client's dietary habits, checking for signs of infection, or evaluating the client's sleep pattern would not directly address the drowsiness associated with clonidine use.
2. A community health nurse is evaluating the effectiveness of a diabetes management program. Which outcome indicates that the program is successful?
- A. increased attendance at diabetes education sessions
- B. reduced incidence of diabetes-related hospitalizations
- C. higher rates of blood glucose monitoring among participants
- D. greater knowledge of diabetes management techniques
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: reduced incidence of diabetes-related hospitalizations. This outcome is a strong indicator of successful diabetes management, as it suggests that participants are effectively controlling their condition and experiencing fewer severe complications that require hospitalization. Increased attendance at education sessions (choice A) may not directly correlate with improved health outcomes. While higher rates of blood glucose monitoring (choice C) are important, they alone may not reflect overall program success. Greater knowledge of diabetes management techniques (choice D) is valuable but does not directly measure the impact of the program on health outcomes like reduced hospitalizations.
3. The healthcare provider is preparing to administer atropine, an anticholinergic, to a client scheduled for a cholecystectomy. The client asks the provider to explain the reason for the prescribed medication. What response is best for the provider to provide?
- A. To increase gastric motility.
- B. To decrease the risk of bradycardia during surgery.
- C. To reduce secretions.
- D. To prevent nausea and vomiting.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Atropine, an anticholinergic medication, is used preoperatively to prevent bradycardia by increasing the automaticity of the sinoatrial node during surgical anesthesia. Choice A is incorrect because atropine does not affect gastric motility. Choice C is incorrect as atropine is not primarily used to reduce secretions. Choice D is also incorrect because preventing nausea and vomiting is not the primary purpose of administering atropine in this context.
4. A school nurse is developing a program to address bullying among students. Which component is most important to include?
- A. education on the effects of bullying
- B. training for teachers on how to handle bullying incidents
- C. a peer mentoring program
- D. a zero-tolerance policy for bullying
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Training for teachers is the most important component to include in addressing bullying among students. Teachers play a crucial role in identifying, intervening, and preventing bullying incidents. By providing teachers with training on how to handle bullying, they can effectively address such situations, support victims, and educate students on appropriate behavior. While education on the effects of bullying (Choice A) is important, teachers need practical skills to intervene. Peer mentoring programs (Choice C) and zero-tolerance policies (Choice D) are valuable but may not be as effective without teachers being equipped to address bullying incidents directly.
5. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with a suspected pulmonary embolism. Which finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Chest pain.
- B. Shortness of breath.
- C. Tachycardia.
- D. Cyanosis.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Cyanosis is a late sign of hypoxemia and indicates severe oxygen deprivation, necessitating immediate intervention in a client with a suspected pulmonary embolism. Chest pain, shortness of breath, and tachycardia are also concerning symptoms in pulmonary embolism; however, cyanosis signifies critical oxygen deficiency and warrants urgent attention to prevent further complications.
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