Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin) therapy. Which laboratory result indicates that the therapy is effective?

• A. International normalized ratio (INR) of 1.0.
• B. Prothrombin time (PT) of 12 seconds.
• C. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) of 60 seconds.
• D. International normalized ratio (INR) of 2.5.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An International Normalized Ratio (INR) of 2.5 indicates that warfarin therapy is within the therapeutic range for a client with atrial fibrillation. A lower INR (such as 1.0) would suggest subtherapeutic levels, risking blood clots. Prothrombin time (PT) and partial thromboplastin time (PTT) are not specific to monitoring warfarin therapy.

2. The healthcare provider is preparing to administer atropine, an anticholinergic, to a client scheduled for a cholecystectomy. The client asks the provider to explain the reason for the prescribed medication. What response is best for the provider to provide?

• A. To increase gastric motility.
• B. To decrease the risk of bradycardia during surgery.
• C. To reduce secretions.
• D. To prevent nausea and vomiting.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Atropine, an anticholinergic medication, is used preoperatively to prevent bradycardia by increasing the automaticity of the sinoatrial node during surgical anesthesia. Choice A is incorrect because atropine does not affect gastric motility. Choice C is incorrect as atropine is not primarily used to reduce secretions. Choice D is also incorrect because preventing nausea and vomiting is not the primary purpose of administering atropine in this context.

3. An 80-year-old client is given morphine sulfate for postoperative pain. Which concomitant medication should the nurse question that poses a potential development of urinary retention in this geriatric client?

• A. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agents.
• B. Antihistamines.
• C. Tricyclic antidepressants.
• D. Antibiotics.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tricyclic antidepressants. Drugs with anticholinergic properties, such as tricyclic antidepressants, can exacerbate urinary retention associated with opioids in older clients. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agents (Choice A) do not typically cause urinary retention. Antihistamines (Choice B) may cause urinary retention but are not the primary concern in this scenario. Antibiotics (Choice D) are not associated with an increased risk of urinary retention compared to tricyclic antidepressants.

4. The nurse is planning a community health fair to promote mental health awareness. Which activity is most likely to engage participants?

• A. a lecture on the signs and symptoms of depression
• B. a workshop on stress management techniques
• C. a panel discussion with mental health experts
• D. a booth distributing brochures on mental health resources

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A workshop on stress management techniques is the most engaging activity as it allows participants to actively participate, learn practical skills, and interact with others. This hands-on approach fosters engagement and provides attendees with tools they can directly apply in their lives. Choice A, a lecture, may be informative but lacks the interactive element that promotes engagement. Choice C, a panel discussion, might be informative but could be passive for attendees. Choice D, distributing brochures, is informative but lacks the interactive and engaging nature of a workshop.

5. A female client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is being treated at home and is currently receiving oxygen at 2 liters via nasal cannula. The spouse, who is the caregiver, reports that the client requires assistance when ambulating short distances, including going to the bathroom. Which suggestion should the health care nurse provide to the caregiver?

• A. disconnect oxygen when ambulating to the bathroom
• B. administer a breathing treatment prior to ambulation
• C. suggest obtaining a bedside commode for toileting
• D. ask for additional assistance to reduce the risk of falls

Correct answer: C

Rationale: For a client with COPD requiring assistance for short-distance ambulation, suggesting a bedside commode for toileting is the most appropriate intervention. This recommendation helps reduce the need for the client to walk long distances, thereby minimizing the risk of exertion and potential falls. Disconnecting oxygen during ambulation (Choice A) is not safe for a client with COPD, as oxygen therapy should be continuous. Administering a breathing treatment before ambulation (Choice B) may not directly address the client's need for assistance with toileting. Asking for additional assistance (Choice D) can be beneficial but providing a bedside commode specifically addresses the current issue of ambulating short distances for toileting.

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