a client with a history of atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin coumadin therapy which laboratory result indicates that the therapy is effective
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

Community Health HESI

1. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin) therapy. Which laboratory result indicates that the therapy is effective?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An International Normalized Ratio (INR) of 2.5 indicates that warfarin therapy is within the therapeutic range for a client with atrial fibrillation. A lower INR (such as 1.0) would suggest subtherapeutic levels, risking blood clots. Prothrombin time (PT) and partial thromboplastin time (PTT) are not specific to monitoring warfarin therapy.

2. A community health nurse is helping a group of nursing students plan a tertiary prevention program for a local community clinic that serves a majority Hispanic population. Which service project meets the requirement of a tertiary prevention program and would best serve this population?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Tertiary prevention focuses on managing and improving health outcomes for existing conditions, such as diabetes. Demonstrating foot care to clients with diabetes aligns with this level of prevention by helping to prevent complications and promote better health outcomes. Choices A, C, and D do not specifically target existing conditions or chronic diseases, which are the focus of tertiary prevention programs.

3. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed enalapril (Vasotec). Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Increasing potassium intake can lead to hyperkalemia, especially in clients taking ACE inhibitors like enalapril. Hyperkalemia is a potential side effect of ACE inhibitors and can be exacerbated by consuming potassium-rich foods. Monitoring blood pressure regularly (A) is important when taking antihypertensive medications. Reporting signs of infection (B) is crucial as ACE inhibitors can lower the immune response. Avoiding salt substitutes (C) is necessary because they may contain potassium chloride, leading to increased potassium levels, which can be harmful in combination with ACE inhibitors.

4. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with hypokalemia. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Decreased deep tendon reflexes are a critical finding in hypokalemia that indicates severe potassium deficiency affecting neuromuscular function. Immediate intervention is necessary to prevent life-threatening complications such as respiratory failure or cardiac arrhythmias. Muscle weakness, irregular heart rate, and increased urinary output are also associated with hypokalemia but do not pose the same level of urgency as decreased deep tendon reflexes.

5. The nurse is caring for a client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which laboratory result requires immediate intervention?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An arterial blood pH of 7.30 indicates the client is in acidosis, which is a life-threatening condition in DKA. Immediate intervention is required to correct the acidosis and prevent further complications such as organ failure or coma. Blood glucose of 250 mg/dL is elevated but not an immediate threat to life in comparison to acidosis. Serum potassium of 3.5 mEq/L and serum sodium of 135 mEq/L are within normal ranges and do not warrant immediate intervention in the context of DKA.

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