Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin) therapy. Which laboratory result indicates that the therapy is effective?

• A. International normalized ratio (INR) of 1.0.
• B. Prothrombin time (PT) of 12 seconds.
• C. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) of 60 seconds.
• D. International normalized ratio (INR) of 2.5.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An International Normalized Ratio (INR) of 2.5 indicates that warfarin therapy is within the therapeutic range for a client with atrial fibrillation. A lower INR (such as 1.0) would suggest subtherapeutic levels, risking blood clots. Prothrombin time (PT) and partial thromboplastin time (PTT) are not specific to monitoring warfarin therapy.

2. The nurse determines that a client's body weight is 105% above the standardized height-weight scale. Which related factor should the nurse include in the nursing problem, 'Imbalanced nutrition: More than body requirements'?

• A. Hypertension.
• B. Diabetes mellitus.
• C. Inadequate lifestyle changes in diet and exercise.
• D. Increased risk of chronic illnesses.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Inadequate lifestyle changes in diet and exercise.' When a client's weight exceeds the standardized height-weight scale significantly, it indicates an imbalance between nutrition intake and energy expenditure, leading to 'Imbalanced nutrition: More than body requirements.' Inadequate lifestyle changes in diet and exercise directly contribute to this imbalance by promoting excessive caloric intake and reduced physical activity. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because while conditions like hypertension, diabetes mellitus, and increased risk of chronic illnesses may be consequences of imbalanced nutrition, they are not the direct related factor that should be included in formulating the nursing problem.

3. A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted with pneumonia. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Oxygen saturation of 88%
• B. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute
• C. Heart rate of 90 beats per minute
• D. Productive cough with green sputum

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client with COPD admitted with pneumonia, a productive cough with green sputum indicates a potential bacterial infection. Green sputum is commonly associated with bacterial pneumonia, which requires immediate intervention with appropriate antibiotics. Monitoring oxygen saturation, respiratory rate, and heart rate are essential in COPD patients, but the presence of green sputum suggests an urgent need for targeted treatment to address the underlying infection. Oxygen saturation of 88% is concerning but may not directly indicate the need for immediate intervention in the absence of other critical symptoms. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute and a heart rate of 90 beats per minute are within normal limits and may not be indicative of an acute issue requiring immediate intervention in this context.

4. A public health nurse is implementing a program to improve vaccination rates among children in the community. Which intervention is most likely to be effective?

• A. Offering vaccinations at convenient locations and times
• B. Distributing educational materials about vaccines
• C. Providing incentives for getting vaccinated
• D. Hosting informational sessions for parents

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Offering vaccinations at convenient locations and times is the most effective intervention as it reduces barriers to access and makes it easier for parents to get their children vaccinated. This strategy directly addresses the issue of convenience and accessibility, which are common reasons for low vaccination rates. Distributing educational materials about vaccines (Choice B) can be helpful but may not directly address access issues. Providing incentives for getting vaccinated (Choice C) may be controversial and not sustainable in the long term. Hosting informational sessions for parents (Choice D) can be beneficial for education but may not directly improve vaccination rates as much as increasing access.

5. A client with a history of hypertension is admitted with a blood pressure of 200/120 mm Hg. Which medication should the nurse prepare to administer?

• A. Metoprolol (Lopressor).
• B. Furosemide (Lasix).
• C. Lisinopril (Zestril).
• D. Nitroprusside (Nipride).

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Nitroprusside (Nipride). In this scenario of severe hypertension (200/120 mm Hg), a hypertensive emergency is present, requiring rapid reduction of blood pressure. Nitroprusside is a vasodilator that acts quickly to lower blood pressure in such emergencies. Options A, B, and C are incorrect: A) Metoprolol is a beta-blocker that lowers blood pressure but is not indicated for hypertensive emergencies requiring rapid reduction. B) Furosemide is a diuretic that helps with fluid retention but does not rapidly lower blood pressure. C) Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor used for long-term management of hypertension, not for immediate reduction in hypertensive emergencies.

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