HESI RN
Community Health HESI
1. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin) therapy. Which laboratory result indicates that the therapy is effective?
- A. International normalized ratio (INR) of 1.0.
- B. Prothrombin time (PT) of 12 seconds.
- C. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) of 60 seconds.
- D. International normalized ratio (INR) of 2.5.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: An International Normalized Ratio (INR) of 2.5 indicates that warfarin therapy is within the therapeutic range for a client with atrial fibrillation. A lower INR (such as 1.0) would suggest subtherapeutic levels, risking blood clots. Prothrombin time (PT) and partial thromboplastin time (PTT) are not specific to monitoring warfarin therapy.
2. When planning a community health fair to promote mental health awareness, which activity should be included to best engage participants?
- A. free mental health screenings
- B. lectures on mental health topics
- C. distribution of mental health resources
- D. interactive workshops on stress management
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The best activity to engage participants in a community health fair promoting mental health awareness is to offer free mental health screenings. This activity not only attracts participants but also provides them with immediate, valuable information about their mental health status. Free screenings can help raise awareness, encourage early detection of mental health issues, and prompt participants to seek further assistance if needed. Lectures, while informative, may not be as engaging or impactful as the personalized feedback individuals receive from screenings. Distributing resources is helpful, but active engagement through screenings is more effective in promoting awareness and encouraging action. Interactive workshops on stress management are beneficial but might not provide the same level of individualized insight into mental health as screenings do.
3. The healthcare provider is preparing to administer atropine, an anticholinergic, to a client scheduled for a cholecystectomy. The client asks the provider to explain the reason for the prescribed medication. What response is best for the provider to provide?
- A. To increase gastric motility.
- B. To decrease the risk of bradycardia during surgery.
- C. To reduce secretions.
- D. To prevent nausea and vomiting.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Atropine, an anticholinergic medication, is used preoperatively to prevent bradycardia by increasing the automaticity of the sinoatrial node during surgical anesthesia. Choice A is incorrect because atropine does not affect gastric motility. Choice C is incorrect as atropine is not primarily used to reduce secretions. Choice D is also incorrect because preventing nausea and vomiting is not the primary purpose of administering atropine in this context.
4. The client, who is 6 weeks pregnant, is being educated by the nurse on prenatal care. Which statement indicates that the client comprehends the nurse's instructions?
- A. I will increase my intake of vitamin C.
- B. I will avoid alcohol and tobacco.
- C. I will need to take folic acid supplements.
- D. I will avoid taking any medication without consulting my healthcare provider.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. During pregnancy, it is crucial to avoid taking any medication without consulting a healthcare provider to prevent harm to the developing fetus. Choices A, B, and C are important aspects of prenatal care but do not specifically address the potential risks associated with taking medications during pregnancy. Increasing intake of vitamin C (Choice A) is beneficial but does not address medication safety. Avoiding alcohol and tobacco (Choice B) is essential, but the question focuses on medication safety. Taking folic acid supplements (Choice C) is vital for neural tube development but does not cover the broader topic of medication safety.
5. The healthcare provider is assessing a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Blood glucose level of 150 mg/dL.
- B. Weight gain of 2 pounds in 24 hours.
- C. Decreased urine output.
- D. Temperature of 100.3°F (37.9°C).
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Decreased urine output in a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) requires immediate intervention because it can indicate potential complications such as fluid overload or kidney dysfunction. Monitoring urine output is crucial in assessing renal function and fluid balance in patients on TPN. A blood glucose level of 150 mg/dL is within a normal range and may not require immediate intervention. Weight gain of 2 pounds in 24 hours could be a concern but may not be as urgent as addressing decreased urine output. A temperature of 100.3°F (37.9°C) is slightly elevated but may not be directly related to TPN administration unless there are other symptoms of infection present.
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