a client with a history of atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin coumadin therapy which laboratory result indicates that the therapy is effective

HESI RN

Community Health HESI

1. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin) therapy. Which laboratory result indicates that the therapy is effective?

A. International normalized ratio (INR) of 1.0.
B. Prothrombin time (PT) of 12 seconds.
C. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) of 60 seconds.
D. International normalized ratio (INR) of 2.5.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An International Normalized Ratio (INR) of 2.5 indicates that warfarin therapy is within the therapeutic range for a client with atrial fibrillation. A lower INR (such as 1.0) would suggest subtherapeutic levels, risking blood clots. Prothrombin time (PT) and partial thromboplastin time (PTT) are not specific to monitoring warfarin therapy.

2. A first-grade boy is sent to the school nurse after he fainted while playing tag during recess. When he arrives in the clinic he is alert and oriented and his vital signs include temperature of 97.8°F, pulse 96 bpm, respirations 15 breaths/minute, and blood pressure 80/56 mmHg. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?

A. request transport of the child to his pediatrician's office
B. call the child's parents and send him home for the day
C. compare the child's body mass index to normal values
D. measure the child's pulse and blood pressure every 15 minutes

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the most important intervention for the nurse to implement is to measure the child's pulse and blood pressure every 15 minutes. The child experienced a syncopal episode (fainting) which could be due to various reasons, including dehydration or cardiac issues. Monitoring vital signs frequently will help detect any changes that may indicate underlying health issues. Requesting transport to the pediatrician's office or sending the child home without continuous monitoring may not provide immediate assessment and intervention. Comparing the child's body mass index to normal values is not relevant in addressing the immediate concern of monitoring vital signs after a syncopal episode.

3. The healthcare professional is developing a safety program for older adults at a senior center. Which topic should the professional prioritize?

A. medication management
B. fall prevention
C. fire safety
D. emergency preparedness

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Fall prevention should be prioritized for older adults as falls are a significant cause of injury and hospitalization in this population. Addressing fall prevention measures can help reduce the risk of falls and improve the overall safety and well-being of older adults. Medication management, fire safety, and emergency preparedness are also important topics, but fall prevention takes precedence due to its direct impact on the health and safety of older adults.

4. The home health nurse visits a young male client with AIDS who has Kaposi's sarcoma and peripheral neuropathies. His parents, who are the caregivers, tell the nurse that their son sleeps most of the time. The nurse assesses that the client is semi-conscious with stable vital signs, cries out in pain when turned or moved, has a Duragesic pain patch in place, and skin lesions that are closed and dried. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

A. remove the Duragesic patch as directed by the prescription
B. give the client a complete bed bath to further assess the client's condition
C. discuss end-of-life decisions with the client's parents
D. call for ambulance transportation to the hospital immediately

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the client with AIDS is showing signs of being in a critical condition - semi-conscious, in pain, and with stable vital signs. The appropriate intervention for the nurse to implement is to discuss end-of-life decisions with the client's parents. Given the client's symptoms, the presence of a pain patch, and the closed and dried skin lesions, it is essential to address end-of-life care planning. Removing the Duragesic patch without proper authorization can lead to inadequate pain management and should not be done without consulting the healthcare provider. Giving a complete bed bath is not the priority in this situation as it does not address the immediate needs of the client. Calling for ambulance transportation to the hospital immediately may not be necessary if the client is stable; instead, the focus should be on providing appropriate support and having critical discussions about the client's care preferences.

5. A client with a history of epilepsy is admitted with status epilepticus. Which medication should the nurse prepare to administer?

A. Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
B. Lorazepam (Ativan)
C. Phenytoin (Dilantin)
D. Carbamazepine (Tegretol)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the management of status epilepticus, the initial medication of choice is a benzodiazepine such as lorazepam (Ativan) to rapidly terminate the seizure activity. Lorazepam acts quickly and effectively in stopping seizures. Phenytoin (Dilantin) is often used as a second-line agent for status epilepticus, and carbamazepine (Tegretol) is not typically indicated for the acute treatment of status epilepticus. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) is a pain reliever and antipyretic but is not used in the treatment of status epilepticus.