Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin) therapy. Which laboratory result indicates that the therapy is effective?

• A. International normalized ratio (INR) of 1.0.
• B. Prothrombin time (PT) of 12 seconds.
• C. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) of 60 seconds.
• D. International normalized ratio (INR) of 2.5.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An International Normalized Ratio (INR) of 2.5 indicates that warfarin therapy is within the therapeutic range for a client with atrial fibrillation. A lower INR (such as 1.0) would suggest subtherapeutic levels, risking blood clots. Prothrombin time (PT) and partial thromboplastin time (PTT) are not specific to monitoring warfarin therapy.

2. A public health nurse is working with a community to improve vaccination rates. Which intervention is most likely to be effective?

• A. Setting up vaccination clinics in accessible locations
• B. Distributing flyers with information about vaccines
• C. Offering incentives for getting vaccinated
• D. Partnering with local businesses to promote vaccination

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Setting up vaccination clinics in accessible locations is the most effective intervention to improve vaccination rates. This intervention ensures easy access to vaccination services for community members, removing barriers such as transportation or time constraints. Distributing flyers (Choice B) may increase awareness but may not directly address access issues. Offering incentives (Choice C) might temporarily boost vaccination rates but may not lead to sustained behavior change. Partnering with local businesses (Choice D) could be beneficial for promotion but may not directly impact vaccination accessibility.

3. The healthcare provider is preparing to administer intravenous immune globulin (IVIG) to a client with Guillain-Barre syndrome. Which assessment is most important before initiating the infusion?

• A. Lung sounds and respiratory status.
• B. Skin integrity and color.
• C. Neurological status and level of consciousness.
• D. Cardiac rate and rhythm.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, "Cardiac rate and rhythm." Monitoring cardiac rate and rhythm is crucial before initiating IVIG because bradycardia is a common side effect associated with this therapy. Assessing lung sounds and respiratory status (Choice A) is important, but cardiac monitoring takes precedence due to the risk of bradycardia. Skin integrity and color (Choice B) are important assessments, but they are not directly related to potential complications of IVIG infusion. Neurological status and level of consciousness (Choice C) are also vital assessments, but monitoring cardiac function is more pertinent in this scenario.

4. A government office worker is seen in the emergency room after opening an envelope containing a powder-like substance which is being tested for anthrax. Which discharge instruction should the nurse provide the client concerning inhalation anthrax?

• A. return to the emergency room if flu-like symptoms develop within 42 days
• B. notify co-workers to get the anthrax vaccine at the public health department
• C. isolation from friends and family members is recommended for 3 weeks
• D. cleanse all surfaces touched with pre-moistened antibacterial wipes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to return to the emergency room if flu-like symptoms develop within 42 days. Flu-like symptoms can be an early sign of inhalation anthrax, and prompt medical intervention is crucial. Choice B is incorrect because the focus should be on the affected individual seeking medical attention rather than vaccinating others. Choice C is incorrect as isolation from friends and family members is not a standard recommendation for inhalation anthrax. Choice D is also incorrect as cleansing surfaces is important for infection control but may not be the priority when facing potential exposure to anthrax.

5. A client with chronic kidney disease is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which finding indicates that the therapy is effective?

• A. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL.
• B. Reticulocyte count of 1%.
• C. Blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg.
• D. Serum ferritin level of 100 ng/mL.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL. Erythropoietin therapy stimulates red blood cell production, leading to an increase in hemoglobin levels. A hemoglobin level of 12 g/dL indicates that the therapy is effective in managing anemia associated with chronic kidney disease. Choice B, a reticulocyte count of 1%, is not a direct indicator of the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy. Choice C, a blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg, is important to monitor in clients with chronic kidney disease but does not specifically indicate the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy. Choice D, a serum ferritin level of 100 ng/mL, is related to iron stores in the body and may be monitored during erythropoietin therapy but does not directly reflect the therapy's effectiveness in increasing red blood cell production.

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