Nursing Elites

1. A community health nurse is addressing the issue of domestic violence in the community. Which intervention should be prioritized?

• A. Providing education on the signs of domestic violence
• B. Setting up a support group for survivors
• C. Partnering with local law enforcement to increase patrols
• D. Creating a confidential hotline for reporting abuse

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Creating a confidential hotline for reporting abuse is the most critical intervention when addressing domestic violence. A hotline offers a safe and confidential way for individuals experiencing abuse to report incidents, seek help, and access support services. This intervention prioritizes immediate safety and support for victims. Providing education on the signs of domestic violence (Choice A) is important for prevention but may not address the urgent needs of individuals currently experiencing abuse. Setting up a support group for survivors (Choice B) is valuable for emotional support but may not reach those who are not yet identified as survivors. Partnering with local law enforcement to increase patrols (Choice C) focuses more on the law enforcement response rather than providing a direct avenue for victims to seek help and support.

2. Which bioterrorism agent is at high risk for use as a potential biological weapon that is readily transmitted by several portals of entry?

• A. anthrax
• B. smallpox
• C. botulism
• D. tularemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Anthrax is the correct answer. Anthrax spores can be transmitted through inhalation, ingestion, or skin contact, making it a high-risk agent for bioterrorism. Smallpox, botulism, and tularemia are also potential bioterrorism agents, but they do not have the same versatility in terms of multiple portals of entry, unlike anthrax.

3. The healthcare provider is assessing the laboratory results for a client who is admitted with renal failure and osteodystrophy. Which findings are consistent with this client's clinical picture?

• A. Serum potassium of 4.0 mEq/L and total calcium of 9 mg/dL.
• B. White blood cell count of 15,000/mm3.
• C. Serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L and total calcium of 6 mg/dL.
• D. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL and phosphorus of 2 mg/dL.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In renal failure and osteodystrophy, there is an alteration in serum electrolyte balance. The correct answer is serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L and total calcium of 6 mg/dL. Renal failure is associated with hyperkalemia (elevated serum potassium) and hypocalcemia (low total calcium levels). Hyperphosphatemia is also commonly seen in renal failure. Choice A is incorrect as it describes normal levels of serum potassium and total calcium. Choice B is unrelated to the client's condition. Choice D is incorrect as it does not reflect the typical electrolyte imbalances seen in renal failure and osteodystrophy.

4. A primipara with a breech presentation is in the transition phase of labor. The nurse visualizes the perineum and sees the umbilical cord extruding from the introitus. In which position should the nurse place the client?

• A. Supine with the foot of the bed raised.
• B. On the left side with legs elevated.
• C. On the right side with legs elevated.
• D. Prone with head elevated.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the scenario of a primipara with a breech presentation and a prolapsed umbilical cord, the nurse should place the client in the supine position with the foot of the bed raised (Trendelenburg position). This position helps alleviate gravitational pressure by the fetus on the cord, preventing compression and reducing the risk of cord prolapse complications. Placing the client on the left or right side with legs elevated or in a prone position with the head elevated would not be appropriate in this situation, as they do not effectively relieve the pressure on the umbilical cord.

5. The healthcare professional is developing a teaching plan for an adolescent with a Milwaukee brace. Which instruction should the healthcare professional include?

• A. Wear the brace over a T-shirt for 23 hours a day.
• B. Remove the brace while sleeping.
• C. Wear the brace directly against the skin.
• D. Remove the brace while eating.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A Milwaukee brace should be worn over a T-shirt for 23 hours a day to reduce friction and chafing of the skin. This ensures that the brace is not directly against the skin, which can cause discomfort and skin irritation. Choice B is incorrect because the brace should typically be worn continuously, even while sleeping, unless otherwise instructed by a healthcare provider. Choice C is incorrect as wearing the brace directly against the skin can lead to skin issues. Choice D is incorrect since the brace should not be removed while eating to maintain the prescribed wear time.

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