Nursing Elites

1. A male client leaves his job at a nearby restaurant and visits the health clinic where he is diagnosed with viral conjunctivitis. While receiving discharge instructions from the nurse, the client states that he is feeling much better and plans to return to work for the afternoon shift. How should the nurse respond?

• A. advise the client to wear a face mask around other people
• B. ask the client what type of work he does at the restaurant
• C. instruct the client to use dark glasses if lighting is bright
• D. explain that the client should stay home for the next few days

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: explain that the client should stay home for the next few days. Viral conjunctivitis is highly contagious, and the client should avoid close contact with others until it resolves. Returning to work while still contagious can lead to the spread of the infection to coworkers and customers. Choice A is incorrect because wearing a face mask may not provide sufficient protection against spreading the virus in a close work environment. Choice B is irrelevant to the situation as the focus should be on the client's health and preventing the spread of the infection. Choice C is also unrelated to the management of viral conjunctivitis and does not address the contagious nature of the condition.

2. A client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) has an elevated blood glucose level. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Stop the TPN infusion.
• B. Administer insulin as prescribed.
• C. Notify the healthcare provider.
• D. Check the TPN infusion rate.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct first action for a client receiving TPN with an elevated blood glucose level is to check the TPN infusion rate. Elevated blood glucose levels in clients receiving TPN can be due to incorrect infusion rates leading to increased glucose delivery. By checking the TPN infusion rate, the nurse can verify if the rate is appropriate and make necessary adjustments. Stopping the TPN infusion abruptly could lead to complications from sudden nutrient deprivation. Administering insulin as prescribed may be necessary but should come after ensuring the correct TPN infusion rate. Notifying the healthcare provider is important but addressing the immediate need to check the infusion rate takes priority to manage hyperglycemia effectively.

3. A community health nurse is developing a program to reduce the incidence of teen pregnancy. Which strategy is most likely to be effective?

• A. Distribute free condoms at local high schools
• B. Offer comprehensive sex education classes
• C. Promote abstinence-only education
• D. Provide access to reproductive health services

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Comprehensive sex education has been shown to be more effective in reducing teen pregnancy rates compared to abstinence-only education. Providing comprehensive sex education equips teens with knowledge about safe sex practices, contraception methods, and healthy relationships, which empowers them to make informed decisions. Distributing free condoms and providing access to reproductive health services are important components, but without proper education, teens may not understand how to use these resources effectively. Promoting abstinence-only education limits information and may not address the reality of teen sexual behavior, potentially leading to higher pregnancy rates.

4. The client is receiving warfarin (Coumadin) therapy. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will avoid eating foods high in vitamin K.
• B. I will use a soft toothbrush and an electric razor.
• C. I will keep all appointments for blood tests.
• D. I will avoid participating in contact sports.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because participating in contact sports can increase the risk of injury and bleeding in a client receiving warfarin therapy. Warfarin is a blood thinner, and activities with a higher risk of injury should be avoided to prevent bleeding complications. Choices A, B, and C are all correct statements for a client on warfarin therapy. Avoiding foods high in vitamin K helps maintain consistent anticoagulation levels, using a soft toothbrush and an electric razor reduces the risk of bleeding gums and cuts, and keeping appointments for blood tests ensures proper monitoring of the client's international normalized ratio (INR) levels.

5. A client with a history of seizures is admitted with status epilepticus. Which medication should the nurse prepare to administer?

• A. Phenytoin (Dilantin)
• B. Diazepam (Valium)
• C. Lorazepam (Ativan)
• D. Carbamazepine (Tegretol)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the management of status epilepticus, the initial medication of choice is a benzodiazepine to rapidly terminate the seizure activity. Lorazepam (Ativan) is preferred over Diazepam (Valium) due to its longer duration of action and lower risk of respiratory depression. Phenytoin (Dilantin) and Carbamazepine (Tegretol) are not the first-line agents for the acute treatment of status epilepticus, making them incorrect choices in this scenario.

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