Nursing Elites

1. A community health nurse is conducting a program evaluation for a diabetes management class. Which measure best indicates the program's effectiveness?

• A. Number of participants attending each session
• B. Participant satisfaction with the class
• C. Reduction in participants' average blood glucose levels
• D. Improvement in participants' knowledge about diabetes

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most effective measure to indicate the program's effectiveness in a diabetes management class is the reduction in participants' average blood glucose levels. This measure directly reflects the impact of the program on managing diabetes and improving health outcomes. Choices A and B may provide valuable information but do not directly assess the program's impact on managing diabetes. Choice D, improvement in participants' knowledge about diabetes, is important but may not directly translate into improved diabetes management without actual health outcome measurements like blood glucose levels.

2. A community health nurse is helping a group of nursing students plan a tertiary prevention program for a local community clinic that serves a majority Hispanic population. Which service project meets the requirement of a tertiary prevention program and would best serve this population?

• A. teaching clients about recommended immunizations for children
• B. demonstrating foot care to a group of clients who have diabetes
• C. taking blood pressures at a local shopping mall in the community
• D. instructing teens about prevention of sexually transmitted diseases

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Tertiary prevention focuses on managing and improving health outcomes for existing conditions, such as diabetes. Demonstrating foot care to clients with diabetes aligns with this level of prevention by helping to prevent complications and promote better health outcomes. Choices A, C, and D do not specifically target existing conditions or chronic diseases, which are the focus of tertiary prevention programs.

3. The healthcare provider is preparing to administer atropine, an anticholinergic, to a client scheduled for a cholecystectomy. The client asks the provider to explain the reason for the prescribed medication. What response is best for the provider to provide?

• A. To increase gastric motility.
• B. To decrease the risk of bradycardia during surgery.
• C. To reduce secretions.
• D. To prevent nausea and vomiting.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Atropine, an anticholinergic medication, is used preoperatively to prevent bradycardia by increasing the automaticity of the sinoatrial node during surgical anesthesia. Choice A is incorrect because atropine does not affect gastric motility. Choice C is incorrect as atropine is not primarily used to reduce secretions. Choice D is also incorrect because preventing nausea and vomiting is not the primary purpose of administering atropine in this context.

4. An older client requiring total care resides with a family consisting of two daughters who take shifts providing care around-the-clock. During a home visit, the daughters ask the nurse about resources that are available for client care while they attend a scheduled family reunion. Which information is best for the nurse to provide?

• A. propose the family seek assistance for care in the area of the reunion's location
• B. tell the caregivers to consider hiring a private duty nurse during the time away
• C. advise to have a case management evaluation of the client's home environment
• D. suggest social services be contacted to find a respite care facility for the client

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Respite care provides temporary relief for primary caregivers, allowing them to attend the reunion while ensuring the client is cared for.

5. The healthcare provider is assessing the laboratory results for a client who is admitted with renal failure and osteodystrophy. Which findings are consistent with this client's clinical picture?

• A. Serum potassium of 4.0 mEq/L and total calcium of 9 mg/dL.
• B. White blood cell count of 15,000/mm3.
• C. Serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L and total calcium of 6 mg/dL.
• D. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL and phosphorus of 2 mg/dL.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In renal failure and osteodystrophy, there is an alteration in serum electrolyte balance. The correct answer is serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L and total calcium of 6 mg/dL. Renal failure is associated with hyperkalemia (elevated serum potassium) and hypocalcemia (low total calcium levels). Hyperphosphatemia is also commonly seen in renal failure. Choice A is incorrect as it describes normal levels of serum potassium and total calcium. Choice B is unrelated to the client's condition. Choice D is incorrect as it does not reflect the typical electrolyte imbalances seen in renal failure and osteodystrophy.

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