a client with a history of alcohol abuse presents with confusion and unsteady gait the nurse suspects wernickes encephalopathy which treatment should
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Capstone

1. A client with a history of alcohol abuse presents with confusion and unsteady gait. The nurse suspects Wernicke's encephalopathy. Which treatment should the nurse anticipate?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Wernicke's encephalopathy is a neurological condition commonly caused by a deficiency in thiamine, often seen in clients with chronic alcohol abuse. Thiamine supplementation is the primary treatment to prevent further neurological damage. Folic acid replacement (choice B) is not the correct treatment for Wernicke's encephalopathy. Intravenous glucose (choice C) may be necessary in some cases of Wernicke's encephalopathy, but thiamine supplementation takes precedence. Magnesium sulfate administration (choice D) is not indicated as the primary treatment for Wernicke's encephalopathy.

2. A client with Parkinson's disease is prescribed levodopa/carbidopa. The nurse instructs the client to take the medication with meals. Which rationale should the nurse provide for taking the medication with food?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'It reduces gastrointestinal upset.' Levodopa/carbidopa can cause nausea and other gastrointestinal side effects. Taking the medication with food can help reduce these side effects and improve the client's comfort. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because taking the medication with food does not primarily enhance effectiveness, improve absorption, or prevent orthostatic hypotension. The main reason for advising to take the medication with meals is to minimize gastrointestinal upset.

3. A client with a urinary tract infection is prescribed ciprofloxacin. What is the most important teaching the nurse should provide?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Ciprofloxacin can cause crystalluria, so increasing fluid intake to 2-3 liters per day helps flush out the medication and prevent crystal formation in the kidneys. This also ensures adequate hydration, which supports the body's ability to fight the infection. Choice A is incorrect because ciprofloxacin should not be taken with dairy products as they can interfere with the absorption of the medication. Choice D is incorrect because although it's important to complete the full course of antibiotics, it's equally crucial to report any improvement in symptoms to the healthcare provider.

4. During an excretory urogram, which observation made by the nurse indicates a complication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because a whole-body bright red color indicates a severe reaction to the contrast dye and must be addressed immediately. Choices A, C, and D do not indicate a severe complication during an excretory urogram. Choice A is a common side effect of the dye, choice C could be a normal sensation due to the injection, and choice D may indicate nausea which is less severe compared to a whole-body red color reaction.

5. A client with a history of stroke is receiving warfarin. What is the nurse's priority assessment?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to assess for signs of bleeding. Warfarin is an anticoagulant that increases the risk of bleeding in patients. Monitoring for signs of bleeding such as easy bruising, petechiae, blood in urine or stool, or unusual bleeding from gums is crucial. Checking the client's blood pressure (choice A) is important but not the priority in this situation. Assessing the client's neurological status (choice C) is essential in stroke patients but is not the priority related to warfarin therapy. Monitoring intake and output (choice D) is important for overall assessment but is not the priority when a client is on warfarin, as assessing for bleeding takes precedence.

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