HESI RN
HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Capstone
1. A client with a history of alcohol abuse presents with confusion and unsteady gait. The nurse suspects Wernicke's encephalopathy. Which treatment should the nurse anticipate?
- A. Thiamine supplementation
- B. Folic acid replacement
- C. Intravenous glucose
- D. Magnesium sulfate administration
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Wernicke's encephalopathy is a neurological condition commonly caused by a deficiency in thiamine, often seen in clients with chronic alcohol abuse. Thiamine supplementation is the primary treatment to prevent further neurological damage. Folic acid replacement (choice B) is not the correct treatment for Wernicke's encephalopathy. Intravenous glucose (choice C) may be necessary in some cases of Wernicke's encephalopathy, but thiamine supplementation takes precedence. Magnesium sulfate administration (choice D) is not indicated as the primary treatment for Wernicke's encephalopathy.
2. A male client with hypertension, who received new antihypertensive prescriptions at his last visit returns to the clinic two weeks later to evaluate his blood pressure (BP). His BP is 158/106, and he admits that he has not been taking the prescribed medication because the drugs make him feel bad. In explaining the need for hypertension control, the nurse should stress that an elevated BP places the client at risk for which pathophysiological condition?
- A. Stroke secondary to hemorrhage
- B. Myocardial infarction
- C. Heart failure
- D. Renal failure
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Stroke is a major complication of uncontrolled hypertension. Elevated BP, especially at levels like 158/106, can cause damage to blood vessels in the brain, leading to a hemorrhagic stroke. Controlling BP is essential to prevent such life-threatening events. Myocardial infarction (choice B) is more commonly associated with coronary artery disease, while heart failure (choice C) and renal failure (choice D) can be complications of uncontrolled hypertension but are not directly related to the elevated BP leading to a hemorrhagic stroke.
3. Before administering digoxin to a client with heart failure, what is the most important assessment for the nurse to perform?
- A. Check the client's blood pressure
- B. Monitor the client's heart rate
- C. Assess the client's respiratory rate
- D. Review the client's potassium level
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's heart rate. Digoxin slows the heart rate, so it is crucial to assess the heart rate before administering the medication. If the heart rate is below 60 beats per minute, the dose should be held, and the healthcare provider should be notified. Checking the blood pressure (Choice A) is important but not as crucial as monitoring the heart rate in this case. Assessing the respiratory rate (Choice C) is not directly related to the action of digoxin. Reviewing the client's potassium level (Choice D) is important for clients taking digoxin due to the risk of hypokalemia, but assessing the heart rate takes priority.
4. A male client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is admitted with new onset shortness of breath and a productive cough. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Administer prescribed anticoagulant.
- B. Notify the healthcare provider.
- C. Auscultate lung sounds.
- D. Prepare for chest physiotherapy.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering an anticoagulant is the nurse's priority action in this situation. Given the client's history of DVT and the presentation of new onset shortness of breath and a productive cough, there is a concern for a pulmonary embolism, which is a life-threatening complication of DVT. Administering an anticoagulant promptly is crucial to prevent further clot formation and to manage the existing clot, reducing the risk of pulmonary embolism. While auscultating lung sounds and preparing for chest physiotherapy are important actions in respiratory assessment and management, the priority in this case is to address the potential complication of a pulmonary embolism by administering the anticoagulant. Notifying the healthcare provider can be done after initiating the immediate intervention of anticoagulant therapy.
5. The nurse is developing a teaching plan for a client receiving chemotherapy. Which of the following should be the nurse's first priority?
- A. The client will maintain adequate nutrition.
- B. The client will manage side effects of treatment.
- C. The client will recognize signs and symptoms of infection.
- D. The client will experience a reduction in pain.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Recognizing signs and symptoms of infection should be the nurse's first priority when developing a teaching plan for a client receiving chemotherapy. Chemotherapy often compromises the immune system, making patients more susceptible to infections. Early identification and prompt treatment of infections are crucial to prevent complications. Options A, B, and D are important aspects of care but recognizing signs of infection takes precedence due to the potential life-threatening consequences in clients undergoing chemotherapy treatment.
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