HESI RN
HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Capstone
1. A client with a history of alcohol abuse presents with confusion and unsteady gait. The nurse suspects Wernicke's encephalopathy. Which treatment should the nurse anticipate?
- A. Thiamine supplementation
- B. Folic acid replacement
- C. Intravenous glucose
- D. Magnesium sulfate administration
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Wernicke's encephalopathy is a neurological condition commonly caused by a deficiency in thiamine, often seen in clients with chronic alcohol abuse. Thiamine supplementation is the primary treatment to prevent further neurological damage. Folic acid replacement (choice B) is not the correct treatment for Wernicke's encephalopathy. Intravenous glucose (choice C) may be necessary in some cases of Wernicke's encephalopathy, but thiamine supplementation takes precedence. Magnesium sulfate administration (choice D) is not indicated as the primary treatment for Wernicke's encephalopathy.
2. A client with peripheral artery disease reports leg cramps while walking. What intervention should the nurse recommend?
- A. Encourage the client to rest immediately when cramping occurs.
- B. Recommend that the client increase their intake of potassium-rich foods.
- C. Advise the client to take a short break, then continue walking.
- D. Recommend that the client avoid walking altogether to prevent cramps.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: For clients with peripheral artery disease, advising the client to take a short break when leg cramps occur and then continue walking is the appropriate intervention. This approach, known as interval walking, helps manage pain from intermittent claudication and improves circulation over time. Choice A is incorrect because immediate rest may not be necessary, and encouraging the client to resume walking after a short break is more beneficial. Choice B is incorrect since increasing potassium-rich foods may not directly address the underlying issue of peripheral artery disease causing cramps. Choice D is incorrect as avoiding walking altogether can lead to further deconditioning and worsen symptoms over time.
3. A client is scheduled for a spiral CT scan with contrast to evaluate for pulmonary embolism. Which information in the client's history requires follow-up by the nurse?
- A. Is allergic to shellfish
- B. Has a history of smoking
- C. Takes metformin for type 2 diabetes mellitus
- D. Has hypertension controlled with medication
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An allergy to shellfish often indicates an allergy to iodine, which is used in contrast dyes for CT scans. This poses a significant risk of an allergic reaction during the procedure. The nurse must ensure appropriate precautions or alternative imaging are considered. Choices B, C, and D are not directly contraindicated for a CT scan with contrast. Smoking history, metformin use, and controlled hypertension do not typically impact the safety or feasibility of the procedure.
4. The nurse is providing care for a client with schizophrenia who receives haloperidol decanoate 75 mg IM every 4 weeks. The client begins developing puckering and smacking of the lips and facial grimacing. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Discontinue the medication immediately
- B. Increase the dose of haloperidol
- C. Complete the abnormal involuntary movement scale (AIMS)
- D. Monitor the client for signs of agitation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: These symptoms are characteristic of tardive dyskinesia, a side effect of long-term antipsychotic use. The nurse should assess the severity of these movements using the AIMS scale and report to the healthcare provider for further management. Discontinuing the medication abruptly (Choice A) can lead to withdrawal symptoms and worsening of the condition. Increasing the dose of haloperidol (Choice B) can exacerbate the symptoms of tardive dyskinesia. Monitoring for signs of agitation (Choice D) is important but does not address the specific side effect described.
5. A client with a tracheostomy develops copious, thick secretions. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Increase the client's fluid intake.
- B. Perform tracheal suctioning.
- C. Administer a mucolytic agent.
- D. Increase the humidity of the oxygen source.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to increase the humidity of the oxygen source. This action helps thin thick secretions, making them easier to clear from the tracheostomy tube. Increasing fluid intake (Choice A) can be beneficial in some cases but addressing humidity is more specific to managing thick secretions in a client with a tracheostomy. Tracheal suctioning (Choice B) should be done after attempting to thin the secretions with increased humidity. Administering a mucolytic agent (Choice C) is a possible intervention but typically comes after addressing humidity and before resorting to suctioning to avoid unnecessary invasiveness.
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