Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of alcohol abuse presents with confusion and unsteady gait. The nurse suspects Wernicke's encephalopathy. Which treatment should the nurse anticipate?

• A. Thiamine supplementation
• B. Folic acid replacement
• C. Intravenous glucose
• D. Magnesium sulfate administration

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Wernicke's encephalopathy is a neurological condition commonly caused by a deficiency in thiamine, often seen in clients with chronic alcohol abuse. Thiamine supplementation is the primary treatment to prevent further neurological damage. Folic acid replacement (choice B) is not the correct treatment for Wernicke's encephalopathy. Intravenous glucose (choice C) may be necessary in some cases of Wernicke's encephalopathy, but thiamine supplementation takes precedence. Magnesium sulfate administration (choice D) is not indicated as the primary treatment for Wernicke's encephalopathy.

2. A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is prescribed heparin therapy. What laboratory value should the nurse monitor?

• A. Monitor the client’s liver function tests.
• B. Monitor the client’s prothrombin time (PT).
• C. Monitor the client’s partial thromboplastin time (PTT).
• D. Monitor the client’s red blood cell count.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Monitor the client’s partial thromboplastin time (PTT). During heparin therapy for DVT, it is essential to monitor the PTT to assess the effectiveness of the medication in preventing clot formation. Monitoring the PTT helps ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range for anticoagulation. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because liver function tests, prothrombin time (PT), and red blood cell count are not specifically monitored to assess the effectiveness of heparin therapy in preventing clot formation.

3. A client with dyspnea is being admitted to the medical unit. To best prepare for the client's arrival, the nurse should ensure that the client's bed is in which position?

• A. Trendelenburg
• B. Supine
• C. Prone
• D. Fowler's

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Fowler's position (head elevated at 45-60 degrees) improves oxygenation by expanding the lungs, making it the best position for clients with dyspnea. Supine or prone positions restrict lung expansion, and Trendelenburg position (head down) can exacerbate breathing difficulties by increasing pressure on the lungs and diaphragm.

4. When teaching a group of mothers of young children about emergency care for poisoning, which of the following statements should be included?

• A. Induce vomiting immediately after the poison ingestion
• B. Call the local Poison Control Center after inducing vomiting
• C. Call the Poison Control Center prior to any interventions
• D. Take the child to the emergency department before calling the Poison Control Center

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct statement to include when teaching about emergency care for poisoning is to call the Poison Control Center prior to any interventions. This is important because the Poison Control Center can provide guidance on the appropriate steps to take based on the type of poisoning, the amount ingested, and the age of the child. Inducing vomiting without professional advice can sometimes do more harm than good. Choice A is incorrect because inducing vomiting immediately is not recommended without consulting with professionals. Choice B is incorrect as it suggests calling the Poison Control Center after inducing vomiting, which is not the recommended sequence. Choice D is incorrect because it is advisable to contact the Poison Control Center first before taking the child to the emergency department.

5. What is the expected outcome of prescribing a proton pump inhibitor to a client with a peptic ulcer?

• A. Promote healing of the gastric mucosa.
• B. Neutralize the effects of stomach acid.
• C. Inhibit the growth of Helicobacter pylori.
• D. Reduce gastric acid secretion.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Reduce gastric acid secretion. Proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) work by reducing gastric acid secretion, which helps prevent further irritation of the gastric mucosa and allows ulcers to heal. While promoting healing of the gastric mucosa (Choice A) is an indirect outcome of reducing gastric acid secretion, the primary mechanism of PPIs is to lower acid levels. Choice B, neutralizing the effects of stomach acid, is typically associated with antacids, not PPIs. Inhibiting the growth of Helicobacter pylori (Choice C) is usually achieved with antibiotics, not PPIs.

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