Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of alcohol abuse presents with confusion and unsteady gait. The nurse suspects Wernicke's encephalopathy. Which treatment should the nurse anticipate?

• A. Thiamine supplementation
• B. Folic acid replacement
• C. Intravenous glucose
• D. Magnesium sulfate administration

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Wernicke's encephalopathy is a neurological condition commonly caused by a deficiency in thiamine, often seen in clients with chronic alcohol abuse. Thiamine supplementation is the primary treatment to prevent further neurological damage. Folic acid replacement (choice B) is not the correct treatment for Wernicke's encephalopathy. Intravenous glucose (choice C) may be necessary in some cases of Wernicke's encephalopathy, but thiamine supplementation takes precedence. Magnesium sulfate administration (choice D) is not indicated as the primary treatment for Wernicke's encephalopathy.

2. A pregnant client complains of heartburn. What instruction should the nurse provide?

• A. Eat spicy food to help digestion.
• B. Eat small meals throughout the day to avoid a full stomach.
• C. Drink carbonated beverages to ease digestion.
• D. Avoid drinking fluids after meals.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a pregnant client experiencing heartburn is to eat small meals throughout the day to avoid a full stomach. This helps prevent the stomach from becoming overly full, reducing the likelihood of heartburn during pregnancy. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Eating spicy food can exacerbate heartburn, carbonated beverages may trigger heartburn due to gas, and avoiding fluids after meals does not directly address the issue of heartburn.

3. A client is experiencing acute bronchospasm. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

• A. Administer a nebulizer treatment of albuterol.
• B. Start an IV infusion of normal saline.
• C. Administer oxygen at 4L/min via nasal cannula.
• D. Position the client in a high Fowler's position.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer a nebulizer treatment of albuterol. In acute bronchospasm, the priority intervention is to deliver a bronchodilator like albuterol to open the airways and improve breathing. Starting an IV infusion of normal saline (Choice B) may be necessary but not the priority in this situation. Administering oxygen at 4L/min via nasal cannula (Choice C) is important but not the first intervention for bronchospasm. Positioning the client in a high Fowler's position (Choice D) can help with breathing but is not the priority over administering a bronchodilator.

4. An adult male is brought to the emergency department following a motorcycle accident, presenting with periorbital bruising and bloody drainage from both ears. Which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Rebound abdominal tenderness.
• B. Diminished bilateral breath sounds.
• C. Rib pain with deep inspiration.
• D. Nausea with projectile vomiting.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the patient's presentation with periorbital bruising and bloody ear drainage suggests a basilar skull fracture. Projectile vomiting, as described in choice D, is concerning for increased intracranial pressure due to the skull fracture. This finding warrants immediate intervention to prevent further neurological compromise. Choices A, B, and C are not the priority in this situation. Rebound abdominal tenderness (choice A) is indicative of intra-abdominal injury but is not as urgent as managing potential intracranial issues. Diminished breath sounds (choice B) and rib pain with deep inspiration (choice C) may suggest underlying chest injuries, which need attention but are not as immediately life-threatening as increased intracranial pressure.

5. A 60-year-old female client with a positive family history of ovarian cancer has developed an abdominal mass and is being evaluated for possible ovarian cancer. Her Papanicolau (Pap) smear results are negative. What information should the nurse include in the client’s teaching plan?

• A. Pap smear is sufficient to detect ovarian cancer
• B. Surgery is unnecessary based on negative Pap smear
• C. Further evaluation involving surgery may be needed
• D. No further tests are needed

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A negative Pap smear does not rule out ovarian cancer, which often requires more comprehensive evaluation, including imaging studies or surgery. The client should be informed that the Pap smear primarily detects cervical cancer, not ovarian cancer. Therefore, further evaluation involving imaging studies or surgery may be necessary to determine the presence of ovarian cancer. Choice A is incorrect because a Pap smear is not sufficient to detect ovarian cancer. Choice B is incorrect because surgery may be necessary for further evaluation if ovarian cancer is suspected. Choice D is incorrect because further tests are needed to confirm or rule out ovarian cancer.

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