Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of alcohol abuse presents with confusion and unsteady gait. The nurse suspects Wernicke's encephalopathy. Which treatment should the nurse anticipate?

• A. Thiamine supplementation
• B. Folic acid replacement
• C. Intravenous glucose
• D. Magnesium sulfate administration

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Wernicke's encephalopathy is a neurological condition commonly caused by a deficiency in thiamine, often seen in clients with chronic alcohol abuse. Thiamine supplementation is the primary treatment to prevent further neurological damage. Folic acid replacement (choice B) is not the correct treatment for Wernicke's encephalopathy. Intravenous glucose (choice C) may be necessary in some cases of Wernicke's encephalopathy, but thiamine supplementation takes precedence. Magnesium sulfate administration (choice D) is not indicated as the primary treatment for Wernicke's encephalopathy.

2. The nurse is caring for a client who had a myocardial infarction 6 hours ago. The primary goal of care at this time is to

• A. Limit the effects of tissue damage
• B. Relieve pain and anxiety
• C. Prevent arrhythmias
• D. Reduce anxiety

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Limit the effects of tissue damage.' After a myocardial infarction, the primary goal of care is to limit the damage to the heart muscle. This includes interventions to improve blood flow, oxygenation, and prevent further complications. Choice B ('Relieve pain and anxiety') is important but secondary to addressing tissue damage. Choice C ('Prevent arrhythmias') is also crucial but falls under the broader goal of limiting tissue damage. Choice D ('Reduce anxiety') is essential for holistic care but is not the primary goal immediately after a myocardial infarction.

3. A client is receiving a blood transfusion and reports feeling chilled and short of breath. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Stop the transfusion and notify the healthcare provider.
• B. Administer an antihistamine as prescribed.
• C. Administer a dose of acetaminophen.
• D. Administer a PRN dose of diphenhydramine.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when a client receiving a blood transfusion reports feeling chilled and short of breath is to stop the transfusion immediately and notify the healthcare provider. These symptoms could indicate a transfusion reaction, which can be serious and even life-threatening. Stopping the transfusion is crucial to prevent further adverse reactions, and notifying the healthcare provider ensures timely intervention and appropriate management. Administering antihistamines, acetaminophen, or diphenhydramine is not the priority in this situation and may delay necessary actions to address the potential transfusion reaction.

4. A client with Parkinson's disease is prescribed levodopa/carbidopa. The nurse instructs the client to take the medication with meals. Which rationale should the nurse provide for taking the medication with food?

• A. It enhances the effectiveness of the medication
• B. It helps to improve absorption
• C. It prevents orthostatic hypotension
• D. It reduces gastrointestinal upset

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'It reduces gastrointestinal upset.' Levodopa/carbidopa can cause nausea and other gastrointestinal side effects. Taking the medication with food can help reduce these side effects and improve the client's comfort. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because taking the medication with food does not primarily enhance effectiveness, improve absorption, or prevent orthostatic hypotension. The main reason for advising to take the medication with meals is to minimize gastrointestinal upset.

5. A client who has been prescribed multiple antihypertensive medications experiences syncope and has a blood pressure of 70/40. What is the rationale for the nurse to hold the next scheduled antihypertensive dose?

• A. Increased urinary clearance of the medications has produced diuresis, lowering the blood pressure.
• B. The antagonistic interaction of the medications has reduced their effectiveness.
• C. The synergistic effect of the medications has resulted in drug toxicity, causing hypotension.
• D. The additive effect of the medications has lowered the blood pressure too much.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The additive effect of multiple antihypertensive medications can cause hypotension, leading to dangerously low blood pressure. In this scenario, the client experiencing syncope with a blood pressure of 70/40 indicates severe hypotension, likely due to the combined action of the antihypertensive medications. Holding the next scheduled dose is essential to prevent further lowering of blood pressure and potential complications. Choices A, B, and C provide inaccurate explanations and do not align with the client's presentation and the need to manage hypotension caused by the additive effect of the medications.

Similar Questions