a client is scheduled for surgery in the morning and is npo which statement indicates that the client understands the reason for being npo
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN Exit Exam 2023 Capstone

1. A client is scheduled for surgery in the morning and is NPO. Which statement indicates that the client understands the reason for being NPO?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'NPO reduces the risk of aspiration during surgery.' When a client is NPO (nothing by mouth) before surgery, it is to prevent aspiration, which can lead to serious complications such as pneumonia. Choice A is incorrect because being NPO is more about preventing aspiration than nausea. Choice B is a general statement without specifying the reason for being NPO. Choice D is partially correct but does not emphasize the crucial aspect of preventing aspiration, which is the primary reason for fasting before surgery.

2. A client is newly prescribed lithium for bipolar disorder. Which finding is most important to report to the healthcare provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Fine hand tremors noted after starting lithium are an early sign of lithium toxicity. It is crucial to report this finding to the healthcare provider promptly. Adjusting the dose or monitoring serum levels more closely may be necessary to prevent further toxicity. Choice A, a serum lithium level of 1.2 mEq/L, is within the therapeutic range (0.6-1.2 mEq/L) for treating bipolar disorder. Choice C, a blood pressure of 110/60 mmHg, and Choice D, a serum sodium level of 140 mEq/L, are within normal limits and not directly related to lithium therapy or toxicity.

3. An older adult client with heart failure (HF) and hypertension (HTN) is receiving atenolol, furosemide, and enalapril. Which assessments are essential to evaluate the effectiveness of the medications?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Monitoring daily weight and blood pressure is crucial to assess the effectiveness of diuretics (furosemide) and antihypertensives (atenolol, enalapril) in managing heart failure and hypertension. Changes in weight indicate fluid status, while blood pressure readings reflect the control of hypertension. Assessing bowel sounds and range of motion are important but not directly related to evaluating the effectiveness of these specific medications in this scenario. Monitoring for hypokalemia is important due to furosemide's potential side effect, but it is not the primary assessment to evaluate medication effectiveness.

4. The nurse is providing care for a client with severe peripheral arterial disease (PAD). The client reports a history of rest ischemia, with leg pain that occurs during the night. Which action should the nurse take in response to this finding?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Providing warmth can help dilate peripheral vessels and increase blood flow, relieving ischemic pain. In PAD, where there is already compromised blood flow, elevating the legs or applying cold therapy could worsen ischemic pain by further reducing blood flow to the extremities. Encouraging ambulation and leg exercises may be beneficial in other conditions but not suitable for clients with severe PAD experiencing rest ischemia.

5. A client frequently admitted to the locked psychiatric unit repeatedly compliments and invites one of the nurses to go out on a date. The nurse's response should be to

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct response for the nurse in this situation is to discuss the boundaries of the therapeutic relationship with the client. By doing so, the nurse can reinforce professionalism, establish clear boundaries, and prevent ethical conflicts. Option A is incorrect because avoiding the client or unit does not address the issue at hand and may compromise patient care. Option B, while acknowledging the behavior, does not address the underlying reasons and boundaries. Option C, stating hospital policy, is not as therapeutic or client-centered as discussing the therapeutic relationship directly.

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