Nursing Elites

1. In the critical care unit, which client should receive the most care hours by a registered nurse (RN)?

• A. A client with a newly inserted Foley catheter and Alzheimer's disease
• B. A 55-year-old with chronic kidney disease
• C. An 82-year-old client with a newly fractured femur and soft wrist restraints
• D. A 72-year-old with pneumonia and sepsis on antibiotics

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The client with a newly fractured femur and soft wrist restraints should receive the most care hours as they have physical limitations due to the fracture and mental limitations due to being restrained. This client requires continuous monitoring, support, and frequent assessments to prevent complications. Choices A, B, and D do not have the same level of physical and mental care needs as the client with the newly fractured femur and soft wrist restraints.

2. What are the primary pathophysiological mechanisms responsible for ascites in liver failure?

• A. Decreased liver enzymes.
• B. Increased hydrostatic pressure in portal circulation.
• C. High bilirubin levels.
• D. Fluid shifts due to decreased serum proteins.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased hydrostatic pressure in portal circulation. Ascites in liver failure is primarily caused by fluid shifts from the intravascular space to the interstitial space due to increased hydrostatic pressure in the portal circulation. Choice A is incorrect as ascites is not caused by decreased liver enzymes. Choice C is incorrect as high bilirubin levels are not the primary mechanism for ascites in liver failure. Choice D is incorrect as fluid shifts in ascites are due to decreased serum proteins, not increased serum proteins.

3. The nurse is caring for a 69-year-old client with a diagnosis of hyperglycemia. Which tasks could the nurse delegate to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)?

• A. Test blood sugar every 2 hours using Accu-Chek
• B. Review signs of hyperglycemia with the family and client
• C. Administer insulin if the blood sugar is elevated
• D. Measure the client's urine output

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because measuring urine output is a task that falls within the UAP's scope of practice and does not require clinical decision-making. Choice A is incorrect because testing blood sugar using Accu-Chek involves interpreting results and possible adjustments, which require a licensed healthcare provider. Choice B is incorrect as discussing signs of hyperglycemia involves education and interpretation that should be done by a nurse. Choice C is incorrect since administering insulin is a high-risk task that necessitates precise dosing and monitoring, thus should not be delegated to UAP.

4. A client with a history of stroke is receiving warfarin. What is the nurse's priority assessment?

• A. Check the client's blood pressure.
• B. Assess for signs of bleeding.
• C. Assess the client's neurological status.
• D. Monitor the client's intake and output.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to assess for signs of bleeding. Warfarin is an anticoagulant that increases the risk of bleeding in patients. Monitoring for signs of bleeding such as easy bruising, petechiae, blood in urine or stool, or unusual bleeding from gums is crucial. Checking the client's blood pressure (choice A) is important but not the priority in this situation. Assessing the client's neurological status (choice C) is essential in stroke patients but is not the priority related to warfarin therapy. Monitoring intake and output (choice D) is important for overall assessment but is not the priority when a client is on warfarin, as assessing for bleeding takes precedence.

5. A client is experiencing angina at rest. Which statement indicates a good understanding of the care required?

• A. I will notify the nurse if my chest pain is not relieved in 30 minutes.
• B. I will use nitroglycerin as needed, every 5 minutes, up to 3 doses.
• C. I will avoid physical activity until the pain subsides completely.
• D. I will take nitroglycerin 30 minutes before any physical activity.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Using nitroglycerin as needed, every 5 minutes, up to 3 doses, is the appropriate management for angina at rest. This helps dilate blood vessels, improving blood flow to the heart. Choice A is incorrect because chest pain that persists at rest should be addressed immediately, not waiting for 30 minutes. Choice C is incorrect as avoiding physical activity is not a recommended approach during an angina episode. Choice D is incorrect because nitroglycerin should be used during chest pain episodes, not as a preventive measure before physical activity.

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