Nursing Elites

1. A client is admitted with a large pleural effusion. Which procedure should the nurse prepare the client for?

• A. Thoracentesis.
• B. Endotracheal intubation.
• C. Chest tube insertion.
• D. Bronchoscopy.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: The correct procedure for a client with a large pleural effusion is thoracentesis. Thoracentesis is a diagnostic and therapeutic procedure used to remove fluid from the pleural space, which can help relieve symptoms associated with pleural effusion. Choice B (Endotracheal intubation) is incorrect as it is a procedure to secure the airway by placing a tube into the trachea. Choice C (Chest tube insertion) is incorrect as it is typically done to drain air or fluid from the pleural space over a longer period. Choice D (Bronchoscopy) is incorrect as it is a procedure used to visualize the airways and diagnose lung conditions, not specifically for pleural effusion removal.

2. A young adult visits the clinic reporting symptoms associated with gastritis. Which information in the client's history is most important for the nurse to address in the teaching plan?

• A. Experiences occasional heartburn after eating spicy food
• B. Consumes 10 or more drinks of alcohol every weekend
• C. Reports frequent use of NSAIDs
• D. Has a history of peptic ulcers

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Excessive alcohol consumption is a major risk factor for gastritis and should be prioritized in the teaching plan. While spicy foods and NSAIDs can contribute to gastritis, alcohol consumption is the most significant factor that needs immediate lifestyle changes to prevent worsening of gastritis symptoms. Peptic ulcers, although relevant, are not as directly linked to exacerbating gastritis symptoms as alcohol consumption.

3. While caring for a client's postoperative dressing, the nurse observes purulent drainage at the wound. Before reporting this finding to the healthcare provider, the nurse should review which of the client's laboratory values?

• A. White blood cell count
• B. Hemoglobin
• C. Serum creatinine
• D. Culture for sensitive organisms

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Purulent drainage suggests an infection at the wound site. Reviewing the culture and sensitivity results will guide appropriate antibiotic treatment by identifying the causative organisms and their antibiotic sensitivities. Elevated white blood cells indicate infection but do not specify the organism. Creatinine and hemoglobin values are unrelated to wound infections.

4. The client is being taught to choose foods rich in potassium to prevent digitalis toxicity. Which choice indicates the client understands dietary needs?

• A. Three apricots
• B. Medium banana
• C. Naval orange
• D. Baked potato

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Baked potato. Baked potatoes are rich in potassium, which is essential in preventing digitalis toxicity by helping to maintain normal electrolyte levels. Apricots, bananas, and oranges are also sources of potassium, but a baked potato has a higher potassium content compared to the other options, making it a more effective choice for preventing digitalis toxicity.

5. A client is receiving continuous intravenous heparin for a deep vein thrombosis. Which laboratory result should the nurse monitor to ensure therapeutic heparin levels?

• A. International normalized ratio (INR)
• B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. Hemoglobin
• D. Platelet count

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the most accurate measure of heparin's therapeutic effect. Heparin increases the time it takes for blood to clot, and the aPTT helps determine whether the dose is within the desired range for anticoagulation therapy. Monitoring the INR, hemoglobin, or platelet count is not specific to assessing therapeutic heparin levels and may not reflect the anticoagulant effect of heparin.

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