HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Capstone
1. A client is admitted with a large pleural effusion. Which procedure should the nurse prepare the client for?
- A. Thoracentesis.
- B. Endotracheal intubation.
- C. Chest tube insertion.
- D. Bronchoscopy.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: The correct procedure for a client with a large pleural effusion is thoracentesis. Thoracentesis is a diagnostic and therapeutic procedure used to remove fluid from the pleural space, which can help relieve symptoms associated with pleural effusion. Choice B (Endotracheal intubation) is incorrect as it is a procedure to secure the airway by placing a tube into the trachea. Choice C (Chest tube insertion) is incorrect as it is typically done to drain air or fluid from the pleural space over a longer period. Choice D (Bronchoscopy) is incorrect as it is a procedure used to visualize the airways and diagnose lung conditions, not specifically for pleural effusion removal.
2. A 5-week-old infant who developed projectile vomiting over the last two weeks is diagnosed with hypertrophic pyloric stenosis. Which intervention should the nurse plan to implement?
- A. Instruct the mother to give the child sugar water only.
- B. Offer oral rehydration solution every 2 hours.
- C. Provide Pedialyte feedings via nasogastric tube.
- D. Maintain intravenous fluid therapy per prescription.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct intervention for a 5-week-old infant diagnosed with hypertrophic pyloric stenosis and experiencing projectile vomiting is to maintain intravenous fluid therapy. Intravenous fluids are crucial for rehydrating an infant suffering from dehydration due to rapid fluid loss from vomiting. Instructing the mother to provide sugar water only (choice A) is inappropriate and insufficient for rehydration. Offering oral rehydration solution every 2 hours (choice B) may not be effective if the infant continues to vomit. Providing Pedialyte feedings via nasogastric tube (choice C) may also not be as effective as intravenous fluid therapy in rapidly replenishing fluids and stabilizing the child's condition.
3. The nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who has had a stroke. Which intervention should the nurse recommend to prevent aspiration during meals?
- A. Encourage the client to take large bites of food
- B. Advise the client to eat quickly to prevent fatigue
- C. Offer the client thin liquids with meals
- D. Instruct the client to sit upright while eating
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Instructing the client to sit upright while eating is crucial to prevent aspiration in stroke clients. This position helps in safe swallowing and reduces the risk of food or liquid entering the airway. Encouraging the client to take large bites of food (Choice A) can increase the risk of choking and aspiration. Advising the client to eat quickly (Choice B) may lead to fatigue and compromise safe swallowing. Offering thin liquids (Choice C) can also increase the risk of aspiration in stroke clients, as thicker liquids are usually recommended to prevent aspiration.
4. A client receiving heparin therapy develops sudden chest pain and dyspnea. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Administer oxygen and elevate the head of the bed.
- B. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin as prescribed.
- C. Assess for signs of bleeding at the injection site.
- D. Administer a PRN dose of albuterol.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario, the priority action for the nurse is to administer oxygen and elevate the head of the bed. These interventions help relieve dyspnea and chest pain, which can be indicative of a pulmonary embolism or other complications during heparin therapy. Administering nitroglycerin (Choice B) is not the initial priority in this situation as the client's symptoms are not suggestive of angina. Assessing for bleeding (Choice C) is important but not the first action needed to address chest pain and dyspnea. Administering albuterol (Choice D) is not indicated unless there are specific respiratory issues requiring it, which are not described in the scenario.
5. Which client is at greatest risk for developing delirium?
- A. An adult client who cannot sleep due to pain.
- B. An older client who attempted suicide 1 month ago.
- C. A young adult taking antipsychotic medications twice daily.
- D. A middle-aged woman using supplemental oxygen.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Older adults who have attempted suicide are at higher risk for developing delirium, especially in the context of underlying mental health conditions. Choice A is incorrect as sleep disturbances due to pain may lead to discomfort but not necessarily delirium. Choice C is incorrect as taking antipsychotic medications, if managed well, does not inherently increase the risk of delirium. Choice D is incorrect as using supplemental oxygen alone does not significantly increase the risk of developing delirium.
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