HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Capstone
1. A client is admitted with a large pleural effusion. Which procedure should the nurse prepare the client for?
- A. Thoracentesis.
- B. Endotracheal intubation.
- C. Chest tube insertion.
- D. Bronchoscopy.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: The correct procedure for a client with a large pleural effusion is thoracentesis. Thoracentesis is a diagnostic and therapeutic procedure used to remove fluid from the pleural space, which can help relieve symptoms associated with pleural effusion. Choice B (Endotracheal intubation) is incorrect as it is a procedure to secure the airway by placing a tube into the trachea. Choice C (Chest tube insertion) is incorrect as it is typically done to drain air or fluid from the pleural space over a longer period. Choice D (Bronchoscopy) is incorrect as it is a procedure used to visualize the airways and diagnose lung conditions, not specifically for pleural effusion removal.
2. A client is admitted with ascites, malnutrition, and recent complaints of spitting up blood. What assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. Capillary refill of 8 seconds
- B. Bruises on arms and legs
- C. Round and tight abdomen
- D. Pitting edema in lower legs
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A round and tight abdomen suggests fluid accumulation from ascites, which could signal a more severe underlying condition requiring immediate intervention. This finding indicates increased intra-abdominal pressure, which can lead to respiratory compromise or other serious complications. Capillary refill time, bruises on arms and legs, and pitting edema in the lower legs are important assessments but do not directly indicate the need for immediate intervention as a round and tight abdomen does in this case.
3. While changing a client's chest tube dressing, the nurse notes a cracking sensation when gentle pressure is applied to the skin at the insertion site. What should the nurse do next?
- A. Apply a pressure dressing at the chest tube site.
- B. Administer an oral antihistamine per PRN order.
- C. Assess the client for allergies to topical cleaning agents.
- D. Measure the area of crackling and swelling.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Measuring the area of crackling and swelling is essential in monitoring the progression of subcutaneous emphysema, which can result from air leaking into the tissues around the chest tube insertion site. This technique helps evaluate the extent of the issue and guides further interventions. Applying a pressure dressing (choice A) might exacerbate the condition by trapping more air. Administering an oral antihistamine (choice B) is not indicated for subcutaneous emphysema. Assessing for allergies to topical cleaning agents (choice C) is not the priority in this situation compared to evaluating and managing the subcutaneous emphysema.
4. The nurse is caring for a 24-month-old toddler who has sensory sensitivity, difficulty engaging in social interactions, and has not yet spoken two-word phrases. Which assessment should the nurse administer?
- A. Peabody Picture Vocabulary Test
- B. The Modified Checklist for Autism in Toddlers (M-CHAT)
- C. Wechsler Preschool and Primary Scale of Intelligence
- D. Denver Developmental Screening Test
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The Modified Checklist for Autism in Toddlers (M-CHAT) is specifically designed to screen for autism spectrum disorders in young children. It is appropriate for this child, given the signs of social and communication delays. The Peabody Picture Vocabulary Test (Choice A) assesses receptive vocabulary and may not capture the social and communication aspects seen in autism. The Wechsler Preschool and Primary Scale of Intelligence (Choice C) measures cognitive ability and may not address the social and communication delays. The Denver Developmental Screening Test (Choice D) is a broad developmental assessment tool, but the M-CHAT is more specific to screening for autism in this case.
5. An adolescent client with meningococcal meningitis is receiving a continuous IV infusion of penicillin G. How many mL/hour should the nurse program the infusion pump to deliver?
- A. 83
- B. 85
- C. 87
- D. 90
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 83. The pharmacy provided the infusion at 10 million units per liter, which requires a rate of 83 mL/hour. To calculate this, multiply the dosage by the volume of the IV solution and divide by the concentration of the IV solution in million units: 10 million units per liter x 8.3 L = 83 mL/hour. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the calculation based on the given information.
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