Nursing Elites

1. A client with heart failure is receiving furosemide. What assessment finding indicates the medication is effective?

• A. Increased urine output and weight loss.
• B. Increased heart rate and blood pressure.
• C. Decreased edema and improved peripheral pulses.
• D. Decreased shortness of breath and clear lung sounds.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Decreased edema and improved peripheral pulses.' In a client with heart failure, furosemide is a diuretic that helps reduce fluid overload. Therefore, a decrease in edema (swelling due to fluid retention) and improved peripheral pulses (indicating better circulation) are signs that the medication is effective. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Increased urine output and weight loss (Choice A) may indicate the diuretic effect of furosemide but do not specifically reflect its effectiveness in heart failure. Increased heart rate and blood pressure (Choice B) are not desired effects of furosemide and may suggest adverse reactions. Decreased shortness of breath and clear lung sounds (Choice D) are related to improved respiratory status and may not directly reflect the effectiveness of furosemide in addressing fluid overload.

2. A male client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is admitted with new onset shortness of breath and a productive cough. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Administer prescribed anticoagulant.
• B. Notify the healthcare provider.
• C. Auscultate lung sounds.
• D. Prepare for chest physiotherapy.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering an anticoagulant is the nurse's priority action in this situation. Given the client's history of DVT and the presentation of new onset shortness of breath and a productive cough, there is a concern for a pulmonary embolism, which is a life-threatening complication of DVT. Administering an anticoagulant promptly is crucial to prevent further clot formation and to manage the existing clot, reducing the risk of pulmonary embolism. While auscultating lung sounds and preparing for chest physiotherapy are important actions in respiratory assessment and management, the priority in this case is to address the potential complication of a pulmonary embolism by administering the anticoagulant. Notifying the healthcare provider can be done after initiating the immediate intervention of anticoagulant therapy.

3. A client with a peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC) line has a fever. What client assessment is most important for the nurse to perform?

• A. Inspect the PICC insertion site for signs of infection.
• B. Observe the antecubital fossa for inflammation.
• C. Auscultate lung sounds for signs of respiratory distress.
• D. Check for signs of phlebitis or thrombosis along the catheter site.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Observing the antecubital fossa for inflammation is crucial in clients with a PICC line and fever. Inflammation at the site can indicate infection or complications related to the PICC line. Auscultating lung sounds (choice C) is important but not the priority in this situation. Checking for phlebitis or thrombosis (choice D) is relevant but does not address the immediate concern of identifying infection or complications at the insertion site. Inspecting the PICC insertion site (choice A) is also important but observing the antecubital fossa provides a more direct assessment of potential issues with the PICC line.

4. An unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP), who usually works on a surgical unit, is assigned to float to a pediatric unit. Which question by the charge nurse would be most appropriate when making delegation decisions?

• A. How long have you been a UAP and what units have you worked on?
• B. What type of care do you provide on the surgical unit, and what are the ages of the clients?
• C. What is your comfort level in caring for children and at what ages?
• D. Have you reviewed the list of expected skills you might need on this unit?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most appropriate question by the charge nurse would be to ask the UAP if they have reviewed the list of expected skills needed on the pediatric unit. This ensures that the UAP is aware of the specific skills required for safe and appropriate care in that particular unit. Choices A, B, and C do not directly address the need for the UAP to review the expected skills, which is crucial for delegation decisions during floating assignments.

5. A client with diabetes insipidus is admitted due to a pituitary tumor. What complication should the nurse monitor closely?

• A. Monitor for elevated blood pressure.
• B. Monitor for ketonuria.
• C. Monitor for peripheral edema.
• D. Monitor for hypokalemia.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor for hypokalemia. In diabetes insipidus, excessive urination can lead to electrolyte imbalances, particularly low potassium levels (hypokalemia). The loss of potassium through increased urination can result in muscle weakness, cardiac dysrhythmias, and other serious complications. Elevated blood pressure (Choice A) is not a typical complication of diabetes insipidus due to pituitary tumors. Ketonuria (Choice B) is more commonly associated with diabetes mellitus due to inadequate insulin levels. Peripheral edema (Choice C) is not a direct complication of diabetes insipidus.

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