HESI RN
RN HESI Exit Exam Capstone
1. A client is prescribed metformin for type 2 diabetes. What should the nurse emphasize in the client's teaching?
- A. Take the medication with meals to reduce the risk of GI upset.
- B. Report any muscle pain to the healthcare provider promptly.
- C. Avoid alcohol consumption while taking this medication.
- D. Monitor blood sugar levels regularly to prevent hypoglycemia.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to avoid alcohol consumption while taking metformin. Alcohol can increase the risk of lactic acidosis when combined with metformin. Choice A is incorrect because metformin is usually recommended to be taken with meals to reduce GI upset. Choice B is important but not the priority; muscle pain is more commonly associated with other diabetes medications. Choice D is incorrect because metformin typically does not cause hypoglycemia but rather helps control blood sugar levels in type 2 diabetes.
2. A client is admitted with an epidural hematoma after a skateboarding accident. How should the nurse differentiate the vascular source of intracranial bleeding?
- A. Monitor for clear fluid leakage from the nose.
- B. Assess for rapid onset of decreased level of consciousness.
- C. Check for bruising around the head and neck.
- D. Assess for changes in pupil size and reactivity.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: An epidural hematoma is characterized by a rapid onset of symptoms, including decreased level of consciousness, due to arterial bleeding, which differentiates it from other types of intracranial hemorrhage. Monitoring for clear fluid leakage from the nose (choice A) is more indicative of a basilar skull fracture and cerebrospinal fluid leak. Checking for bruising around the head and neck (choice C) is more suggestive of soft tissue injuries or facial fractures. Assessing for changes in pupil size and reactivity (choice D) is essential in evaluating traumatic brain injuries, but it is not specific to differentiating the vascular source of intracranial bleeding in an epidural hematoma.
3. A male client with heart failure presents with shortness of breath, audible wheezing, and pink frothy sputum. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Consult with the charge nurse regarding morphine prescription.
- B. Administer the dose of morphine sulfate as prescribed.
- C. Withhold morphine until dyspnea resolves.
- D. Review the need for the prescription with the healthcare provider.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer the dose of morphine sulfate as prescribed. In heart failure, morphine helps reduce anxiety, preload, and afterload on the heart, improving oxygenation. The client's symptoms indicate acute decompensated heart failure, and morphine should be administered promptly to relieve distress. Consulting the charge nurse (Choice A) or withholding morphine (Choice C) would delay necessary treatment. Reviewing the prescription with the healthcare provider (Choice D) is not needed in this acute situation.
4. A client with schizophrenia is experiencing paranoia. What is the nurse's priority intervention?
- A. Reassure the client that their fears are unfounded.
- B. Place the client in a private room to reduce stimuli.
- C. Provide the client with a distraction to redirect their attention.
- D. Encourage the client to express their concerns and validate their feelings.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Encouraging clients with paranoia to express their concerns and validating their feelings is crucial as it helps establish trust and reduce anxiety. This approach also aids in building a therapeutic relationship. Reassuring the client that their fears are unfounded (Choice A) may invalidate their feelings and worsen trust. Placing the client in a private room to reduce stimuli (Choice B) may be helpful in some situations but does not address the underlying issue of paranoia. Providing a distraction (Choice C) may temporarily shift the client's focus but does not address the root cause of the paranoia. Therefore, the priority intervention is to encourage the client to express their concerns and validate their feelings.
5. A client with a urinary tract infection is prescribed ciprofloxacin. What is the nurse's priority teaching?
- A. Take the medication with a full glass of water.
- B. Avoid direct sunlight while taking the medication.
- C. Take the medication with meals to prevent nausea.
- D. Discontinue the medication if you experience dizziness.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Take the medication with a full glass of water.' It is crucial for the nurse to teach the client to take ciprofloxacin with a full glass of water to prevent crystalluria, a potential side effect of the medication. Choice B is incorrect because ciprofloxacin does not require avoiding direct sunlight. Choice C is incorrect as taking the medication with meals is not necessary to prevent nausea. Choice D is incorrect as dizziness is not a common reason to discontinue ciprofloxacin.
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