HESI RN
Pharmacology HESI Quizlet
1. A client who is taking hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL, HCTZ) has been started on triamterene (Dyrenium) as well. The client asks the nurse why both medications are required. The nurse formulates a response, based on the understanding that:
- A. Both are weak potassium-losing diuretics.
- B. The combination of these medications prevents renal toxicity.
- C. Hydrochlorothiazide is less expensive, so using a combination of diuretics is cost-effective.
- D. Triamterene is a potassium-sparing diuretic, whereas hydrochlorothiazide is a potassium-losing diuretic.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The combination of triamterene and hydrochlorothiazide is used because triamterene is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which helps retain potassium, while hydrochlorothiazide is a potassium-losing diuretic, which promotes potassium excretion. This combination helps balance potassium levels in the body, preventing imbalances that can occur when using potassium-losing diuretics alone.
2. A client with hyperthyroidism is receiving radioactive iodine therapy. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I should avoid close contact with pregnant women and children for a few days.
- B. I may experience dry mouth and taste changes for a few days.
- C. I may experience some neck swelling.
- D. I should expect to have no side effects.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'D.' The client stating 'I should expect to have no side effects' indicates a need for further teaching as it is incorrect. With radioactive iodine therapy, side effects like dry mouth, taste changes, and neck swelling are common. Choices A and B are correct statements; the client should avoid close contact with pregnant women and children due to radiation exposure, and dry mouth and taste changes are common side effects. Choice C is also correct, making D the correct answer.
3. Which medication should the nurse withhold if the client's serum potassium level is 6.2 mEq/L?
- A. Losartan
- B. Spironolactone
- C. Metoprolol
- D. Furosemide
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Spironolactone. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can lead to hyperkalemia. With potassium levels already elevated at 6.2 mEq/L, withholding Spironolactone is essential to prevent further increase in potassium levels, which could result in dangerous cardiac arrhythmias. Losartan (Choice A) is an angiotensin receptor blocker and does not directly affect potassium levels. Metoprolol (Choice C) is a beta-blocker and also does not impact potassium levels significantly. Furosemide (Choice D) is a loop diuretic that can actually lower potassium levels, so it would not be the medication to withhold in this case.
4. A 2-week-old female infant is hospitalized for the surgical repair of an umbilical hernia. After returning to the postoperative neonatal unit, her RR and HR have increased during the last hour. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Notify the healthcare provider of these findings
- B. Administer a PRN analgesic as prescribed
- C. Document the findings in the infant's medical record
- D. Comfort the infant by swaddling and gently rocking
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a postoperative neonatal setting, an increase in respiratory rate (RR) and heart rate (HR) in an infant could indicate pain or distress. It is crucial for the nurse to notify the healthcare provider promptly to assess the infant's condition and provide appropriate interventions. Prompt communication with the healthcare provider ensures timely evaluation and management of the infant's discomfort or distress, promoting optimal postoperative recovery and comfort. Administering analgesics without healthcare provider assessment could mask underlying issues, documenting findings alone does not address the immediate need for intervention, and comforting may not resolve the underlying cause of increased RR and HR.
5. The adult client admitted to the post-anesthesia care unit (PACU) following abdominal surgery has a tympanic temperature of 94.6°F (34.8°C), a pulse rate of 88 beats/minute, a respiratory rate of 14 breaths/minute, and a blood pressure of 94/64 mmHg. Which action should the nurse implement?
- A. Take the client's temperature using another method.
- B. Raise the head of the bed to 60 to 90 degrees.
- C. Ask the client to cough and deep breathe.
- D. Check the blood pressure every five minutes for one hour.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Taking the client's temperature using another method is the most appropriate action in this situation. A tympanic temperature of 94.6°F (34.8°C) is abnormally low and may not reflect the true core body temperature accurately. By using an alternative method, such as oral or rectal temperature measurement, the nurse can obtain a more reliable temperature reading. Raising the head of the bed (Choice B) is not directly related to addressing the low temperature. Asking the client to cough and deep breathe (Choice C) may be beneficial for respiratory function but does not address the temperature concern. Checking the blood pressure every five minutes for one hour (Choice D) is not the priority when the initial focus should be on accurate temperature assessment.