Nursing Elites

1. A client who is taking hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL, HCTZ) has been started on triamterene (Dyrenium) as well. The client asks the nurse why both medications are required. The nurse formulates a response, based on the understanding that:

• A. Both are weak potassium-losing diuretics.
• B. The combination of these medications prevents renal toxicity.
• C. Hydrochlorothiazide is less expensive, so using a combination of diuretics is cost-effective.
• D. Triamterene is a potassium-sparing diuretic, whereas hydrochlorothiazide is a potassium-losing diuretic.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The combination of triamterene and hydrochlorothiazide is used because triamterene is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which helps retain potassium, while hydrochlorothiazide is a potassium-losing diuretic, which promotes potassium excretion. This combination helps balance potassium levels in the body, preventing imbalances that can occur when using potassium-losing diuretics alone.

2. When a client is taking lansoprazole (Prevacid), which question should the nurse ask during data collection to determine medication effectiveness?

• A. Has your appetite increased?
• B. Are you experiencing any heartburn?
• C. Do you have any problems with vision?
• D. Do you experience any leg pain when walking?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client is taking lansoprazole (Prevacid), a gastric acid pump inhibitor used to treat gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD), the nurse should ask if the client is experiencing any heartburn to determine medication effectiveness. Heartburn is a common symptom of GERD, and the reduction of heartburn indicates the effectiveness of lansoprazole in managing acid reflux symptoms. Choices A, C, and D are not relevant to assessing the effectiveness of lansoprazole for GERD.

3. A healthcare provider has written a prescription for ranitidine (Zantac), once daily. When should the nurse schedule the medication?

• A. At bedtime
• B. After lunch
• C. With supper
• D. Before breakfast

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: At bedtime. Ranitidine should be scheduled at bedtime because it provides a prolonged effect and offers the greatest protection of the gastric mucosa. Administering it at this time helps in managing nocturnal acid breakthrough and providing relief during the night.

4. A client who had a kidney transplant is receiving therapy with cyclosporine (Sandimmune). Which statement by the client indicates a need for further instruction?

• A. I need to obtain a yearly influenza vaccine.
• B. I need to have dental checkups every 3 months.
• C. I need to self-monitor my blood pressure at home.
• D. I need to call the health care provider (HCP) if my urine volume decreases or my urine becomes cloudy.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Cyclosporine is an immunosuppressant that can reduce the effectiveness of vaccines. Clients should avoid vaccinations without consulting their health care provider to prevent potential complications or reduced efficacy of the vaccines.

5. A nurse reinforces discharge instructions to a postoperative client who is taking warfarin sodium (Coumadin). Which statement, if made by the client, reflects the need for further teaching?

• A. I will take my pills every day at the same time.
• B. I will be certain to avoid alcohol consumption.
• C. I have already called my family to pick up a Medic-Alert bracelet.
• D. I will take Ecotrin (enteric-coated aspirin) for my headaches because it is coated.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Ecotrin is an aspirin-containing product and should be avoided. Clients should avoid alcohol consumption, take prescribed medication at the same time each day, and use a Medic-Alert bracelet for emergency information.

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