Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving desmopressin acetate (DDAVP), and a healthcare provider is monitoring for adverse effects. Which of the following indicates the presence of an adverse effect?

• A. Insomnia
• B. Drowsiness
• C. Weight loss
• D. Increased urination

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Drowsiness can be a sign of water intoxication or hyponatremia, which are potential adverse effects of desmopressin acetate (DDAVP). It is crucial to monitor for this symptom and promptly address it to prevent complications.

2. When reviewing laboratory results for a client receiving tacrolimus (Prograf), which laboratory result would indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of the medication?

• A. Blood glucose of 200 mg/dL
• B. Potassium level of 3.8 mEq/L
• C. Platelet count of 300,000 cells/mm³
• D. White blood cell count of 6000 cells/mm³

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An elevated blood glucose level of 200 mg/dL indicates an adverse effect of tacrolimus. This finding suggests hyperglycemia, which is a known adverse effect of the medication. Other potential adverse effects of tacrolimus include neurotoxicity and hypertension. Monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial to detect and manage this adverse effect promptly. Choices B, C, and D are not directly associated with adverse effects of tacrolimus. Potassium, platelet count, and white blood cell count are important parameters to monitor for other reasons but not specifically for detecting adverse effects of tacrolimus.

3. The healthcare provider is analyzing the laboratory results of a client with leukemia who has received a regimen of chemotherapy. Which laboratory value would the healthcare provider specifically note as a result of the massive cell destruction that occurred from the chemotherapy?

• A. Anemia
• B. Decreased platelets
• C. Increased uric acid level
• D. Decreased leukocyte count

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Following chemotherapy for leukemias and lymphomas, hyperuricemia is common due to the massive cell kill. Chemotherapy leads to the rapid destruction of cancer cells, releasing large amounts of nucleic acids, which are broken down into uric acid. Monitoring and managing uric acid levels are crucial to prevent complications such as renal damage and gout.

4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer an intramuscular dose of penicillin to a client with a history of anaphylactic reactions to penicillin. Which action should the healthcare professional take first?

• A. Check the medication order for accuracy.
• B. Have an epinephrine injection available.
• C. Administer a test dose to check for a reaction.
• D. Ask the client about any allergies.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When dealing with a client who has a history of anaphylactic reactions to penicillin, the priority action for the healthcare professional is to have an epinephrine injection readily available in case of a severe allergic reaction. In such cases, the immediate focus is on being prepared to manage a potentially life-threatening situation. While checking the medication order for accuracy, administering a test dose, and asking the client about allergies are essential steps in medication administration, the first priority is ensuring the availability of epinephrine to address a severe allergic reaction promptly.

5. A client is receiving meperidine (Demerol) for pain management. Which assessment finding requires immediate action?

• A. Constipation
• B. Drowsiness
• C. Respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute
• D. Nausea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute indicates respiratory depression, a severe side effect of meperidine (Demerol) that necessitates immediate intervention to prevent further complications. Constipation, drowsiness, and nausea are common but less urgent side effects that do not pose an immediate life-threatening risk. Respiratory depression can lead to respiratory arrest and must be addressed promptly to ensure the client's safety and well-being.

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