a clinic nurse prepares to administer an mmr measles mumps rubella vaccine to a child how is this vaccine best administered
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

Pharmacology HESI

1. A clinic nurse prepares to administer an MMR (measles, mumps, rubella) vaccine to a child. How is this vaccine best administered?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The MMR vaccine is best administered subcutaneously in the outer aspect of the upper arm. This route allows for proper absorption and efficacy of the vaccine while minimizing the risk of injury or discomfort to the child.

2. The client has a PRN prescription for loperamide hydrochloride (Imodium). The nurse understands that this medication is used for which condition?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Loperamide hydrochloride (Imodium) is an antidiarrheal medication commonly used to manage episodes of diarrhea. It works by slowing down gut movement and reducing the frequency of bowel movements. Loperamide is not indicated for constipation, abdominal pain, or hematest-positive nasogastric tube drainage. It is specifically useful in acute and chronic diarrhea, such as in cases of inflammatory bowel disease, to help control symptoms and decrease fluid loss.

3. A client with coronary artery disease complains of substernal chest pain. After checking the client's heart rate and blood pressure, a nurse administers nitroglycerin, 0.4 mg, sublingually. After 5 minutes, the client states, 'My chest still hurts.' Select the appropriate actions that the nurse should take.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to contact the registered nurse. When a client with coronary artery disease experiences chest pain and does not achieve relief after the initial administration of nitroglycerin, it is crucial to inform the registered nurse promptly. Following the usual guideline for nitroglycerin administration, the nurse may administer a second tablet after assessing the client's pain level. The nurse should continue to assess the client's pain and monitor vital signs before each dose administration. Calling a code blue is not warranted at this point, as the client's condition does not indicate an immediate life-threatening emergency. Contacting the client's family is not necessary unless requested by the client.

4. A client is taking lansoprazole (Prevacid) for the chronic management of Zollinger-Ellison syndrome. The nurse advises the client to take which of the following products if needed for a headache?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Acetaminophen is the preferred choice for pain relief in individuals taking lansoprazole for Zollinger-Ellison syndrome due to its lower risk of stomach irritation compared to NSAIDs like ibuprofen and aspirin. Naproxen, ibuprofen, and aspirin are NSAIDs that can increase the risk of stomach irritation and bleeding, which is why they are not recommended for individuals with Zollinger-Ellison syndrome who are already on lansoprazole to reduce stomach acid production.

5. A client with diabetes mellitus visits a health care clinic. The client's diabetes mellitus was previously well controlled with daily glyburide (DiaBeta). However, the fasting blood glucose level has recently been in the range of 180 to 200 mg/dL. Which medication, if added to the client's regimen, may have contributed to the hyperglycemia?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Prednisone is known to reduce the effectiveness of oral hypoglycemic medications like glyburide and insulin, which can result in hyperglycemia. Therefore, the addition of prednisone to the client's regimen could have contributed to the elevated fasting blood glucose levels observed.

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