HESI RN
HESI Pharmacology Practice Exam
1. A healthcare professional is monitoring a client who is receiving intravenous amphotericin B. Which of the following should prompt the healthcare professional to notify the healthcare provider immediately?
- A. Fever
- B. Headache
- C. Nausea
- D. Oliguria
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Amphotericin B is known to cause nephrotoxicity, which can lead to kidney damage. Oliguria, which is decreased urine output, is a concerning sign of kidney dysfunction and should be reported promptly to the healthcare provider to prevent further complications. Fever, headache, and nausea are common side effects of amphotericin B but are not as critical as oliguria in indicating potential kidney damage.
2. A client is being educated about the use of sertraline (Zoloft) for depression. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I should take the medication with a high-protein meal.
- B. I may experience dizziness when getting up quickly.
- C. I might notice a decrease in my sex drive.
- D. I should report any thoughts of self-harm to my healthcare provider.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The statement 'I should take the medication with a high-protein meal' indicates a need for further teaching as sertraline (Zoloft) should not be taken with a high-protein meal due to potential interference with medication absorption. Choices B, C, and D are correct statements associated with the use of sertraline for depression. It is common to experience dizziness when quickly getting up, notice a decrease in sex drive, and important to report any thoughts of self-harm to the healthcare provider while on this medication.
3. A clinic nurse prepares to administer an MMR (measles, mumps, rubella) vaccine to a child. How is this vaccine best administered?
- A. Intramuscularly in the deltoid muscle
- B. Subcutaneously in the gluteal muscle
- C. Subcutaneously in the outer aspect of the upper arm
- D. Intramuscularly in the anterolateral aspect of the thigh
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The MMR vaccine is best administered subcutaneously in the outer aspect of the upper arm. This route allows for proper absorption and efficacy of the vaccine while minimizing the risk of injury or discomfort to the child.
4. A client is receiving intravenous heparin for a deep vein thrombosis. The healthcare provider should monitor the client for which of the following potential complications?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Bleeding
- D. Hyperkalemia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Heparin is an anticoagulant, so the primary potential complication is bleeding. The healthcare provider should monitor the client for signs of bleeding, such as bruising, hematuria, and gastrointestinal bleeding. Hypertension, tachycardia, and hyperkalemia are not direct complications of heparin therapy. Therefore, the correct answer is bleeding, as it is the most significant risk associated with heparin administration.
5. A client presenting with complaints of not feeling well is seen in a clinic. The client is taking several medications for the control of heart disease and hypertension, including a beta-blocker, digoxin (Lanoxin), and a diuretic. A tentative diagnosis of digoxin toxicity is made. Which of the following assessment data would support this diagnosis?
- A. Dyspnea, edema, and palpitations
- B. Chest pain, hypotension, and paresthesia
- C. Double vision, loss of appetite, and nausea
- D. Constipation, dry mouth, and sleep disorder
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Double vision, loss of appetite, and nausea are classic signs of digoxin toxicity. Other signs may include bradycardia, visual disturbances, and confusion. These symptoms are indicators that the client may be experiencing adverse effects due to elevated levels of digoxin in the system, requiring immediate medical attention to prevent serious complications.
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