Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is monitoring a client who is receiving intravenous amphotericin B. Which of the following should prompt the healthcare professional to notify the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. Fever
• B. Headache
• C. Nausea
• D. Oliguria

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Amphotericin B is known to cause nephrotoxicity, which can lead to kidney damage. Oliguria, which is decreased urine output, is a concerning sign of kidney dysfunction and should be reported promptly to the healthcare provider to prevent further complications. Fever, headache, and nausea are common side effects of amphotericin B but are not as critical as oliguria in indicating potential kidney damage.

2. A client receives a prescription for methocarbamol (Robaxin), and the nurse reinforces instructions to the client regarding the medication. Which client statement would indicate a need for further instructions?

• A. My urine may turn brown or green.
• B. This medication is prescribed to help relieve my muscle spasms.
• C. If my vision becomes blurred, I need to be concerned about it.
• D. I need to call my doctor if I experience nasal congestion from this medication.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because blurred vision is an adverse effect of methocarbamol (Robaxin) and should be reported to a healthcare provider. Choices A, B, and D are all correct statements. Option A informs the client about a possible discoloration of urine, which is a known side effect. Option B correctly explains the purpose of the medication. Option D correctly advises the client to contact their doctor if they experience nasal congestion, which could indicate an adverse reaction.

3. Nalidixic acid (NegGram) is prescribed for a client with a urinary tract infection. On review of the client's record, the nurse notes that the client is taking warfarin sodium (Coumadin) daily. Which prescription should the nurse anticipate for this client?

• A. Discontinuation of warfarin sodium (Coumadin)
• B. A decrease in the warfarin sodium (Coumadin) dosage
• C. An increase in the warfarin sodium (Coumadin) dosage
• D. A decrease in the usual dose of nalidixic acid (NegGram)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nalidixic acid can intensify the effects of oral anticoagulants by displacing these agents from binding sites on plasma proteins. When an oral anticoagulant, like warfarin sodium (Coumadin), is combined with nalidixic acid, a decrease in the anticoagulant dosage may be necessary to avoid excessive anticoagulation and potential bleeding risks. Therefore, the correct action for the nurse to anticipate in this situation is a decrease in the warfarin sodium (Coumadin) dosage. Choice A is incorrect because discontinuing warfarin sodium abruptly can lead to thrombosis or embolism. Choice C is incorrect as increasing the warfarin sodium dosage can potentiate the anticoagulant effect, leading to bleeding complications. Choice D is incorrect as reducing the dose of nalidixic acid would not directly address the interaction with warfarin sodium.

4. A community health nurse visits a client at home. Prednisone 10 mg orally daily has been prescribed for the client. The nurse reinforces teaching for the client about the medication. Which statement, if made by the client, indicates that further teaching is necessary?

• A. I can take aspirin or my antihistamine if I need it.
• B. I need to take the medication every day at the same time.
• C. I need to avoid coffee, tea, cola, and chocolate in my diet.
• D. If I gain more than 5 pounds a week, I will call my doctor.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Aspirin and other over-the-counter medications should not be taken without consulting the health care provider (HCP). The client needs to take the medication at the same time every day and avoid caffeine-containing foods and fluids to prevent steroid-ulcer development.

5. The client has begun medication therapy with pancrelipase (Pancrease MT). The nurse evaluates that the medication is having the optimal intended benefit if which effect is observed?

• A. Weight loss
• B. Relief of heartburn
• C. Reduction of steatorrhea
• D. Absence of abdominal pain

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Pancrelipase (Pancrease MT) is a pancreatic enzyme replacement therapy used to aid digestion in clients with pancreatic insufficiency. One of the key goals of pancrelipase therapy is to reduce the amount of undigested fat in the stool, known as steatorrhea. Therefore, the nurse should evaluate the effectiveness of pancrelipase by looking for a reduction in steatorrhea, indicating improved digestion and absorption of fats.

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