Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional prepares to administer sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate) to a client. Before administering the medication, the professional reviews the action of the medication and understands that it:

• A. Releases bicarbonate in exchange for primarily sodium ions
• B. Releases sodium ions in exchange for primarily potassium ions
• C. Releases potassium ions in exchange for primarily sodium ions
• D. Releases sodium ions in exchange for primarily bicarbonate ions

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Sodium polystyrene sulfonate, such as Kayexalate, is a cation exchange resin that functions by releasing sodium ions in exchange for primarily potassium ions. This medication is commonly used to treat hyperkalemia, a condition characterized by elevated levels of potassium in the blood.

2. A client has been prescribed furosemide (Lasix), and the nurse is monitoring for adverse effects associated with this medication. Which of the following should the nurse recognize as a potential adverse effect? Select one that doesn't apply.

• A. Nausea
• B. Tinnitus
• C. Hypotension
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to adverse effects such as tinnitus, hypotension, and hypokalemia. While nausea is a common side effect of many medications, it is not typically associated with furosemide. Therefore, the nurse should recognize nausea as a potential adverse effect that doesn't apply to furosemide.

3. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed tiotropium (Spiriva). Which instruction should the nurse include in the teaching plan?

• A. Use the medication as a rescue inhaler.
• B. Rinse your mouth after using the inhaler.
• C. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
• D. Take the medication with a full glass of water.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Tiotropium (Spiriva) is not a rescue inhaler but a maintenance medication for COPD. The correct instruction for the nurse to include in the teaching plan is to advise the client to rinse their mouth after using the inhaler. This practice helps prevent dry mouth and throat irritation, common side effects of tiotropium. There are no specific recommendations to take tiotropium on an empty stomach or with a full glass of water.

4. A client is receiving bethanechol chloride (Urecholine). The nurse monitors the client for adverse effects of the medication and should observe for which of the following?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Constipation
• C. Hypertension
• D. Dry mouth

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Bethanechol chloride (Urecholine) stimulates muscarinic receptors, which can lead to bradycardia as an adverse effect. Monitoring for bradycardia is crucial when administering this medication. Constipation, hypertension, and dry mouth are not typically associated with the effects of bethanechol chloride. Bradycardia is the correct adverse effect to monitor for, making option A the correct answer. Constipation, hypertension, and dry mouth are not commonly seen with bethanechol chloride and are therefore incorrect choices.

5. A healthcare professional is monitoring a client who is receiving intravenous amphotericin B. Which of the following should prompt the healthcare professional to notify the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. Fever
• B. Headache
• C. Nausea
• D. Oliguria

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Amphotericin B is known to cause nephrotoxicity, which can lead to kidney damage. Oliguria, which is decreased urine output, is a concerning sign of kidney dysfunction and should be reported promptly to the healthcare provider to prevent further complications. Fever, headache, and nausea are common side effects of amphotericin B but are not as critical as oliguria in indicating potential kidney damage.

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