HESI RN
HESI Pharmacology Quizlet
1. A healthcare professional prepares to administer sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate) to a client. Before administering the medication, the professional reviews the action of the medication and understands that it:
- A. Releases bicarbonate in exchange for primarily sodium ions
- B. Releases sodium ions in exchange for primarily potassium ions
- C. Releases potassium ions in exchange for primarily sodium ions
- D. Releases sodium ions in exchange for primarily bicarbonate ions
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Sodium polystyrene sulfonate, such as Kayexalate, is a cation exchange resin that functions by releasing sodium ions in exchange for primarily potassium ions. This medication is commonly used to treat hyperkalemia, a condition characterized by elevated levels of potassium in the blood.
2. The healthcare provider is analyzing the laboratory results of a client with leukemia who has received a regimen of chemotherapy. Which laboratory value would the healthcare provider specifically note as a result of the massive cell destruction that occurred from the chemotherapy?
- A. Anemia
- B. Decreased platelets
- C. Increased uric acid level
- D. Decreased leukocyte count
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Following chemotherapy for leukemias and lymphomas, hyperuricemia is common due to the massive cell kill. Chemotherapy leads to the rapid destruction of cancer cells, releasing large amounts of nucleic acids, which are broken down into uric acid. Monitoring and managing uric acid levels are crucial to prevent complications such as renal damage and gout.
3. A client with diabetes mellitus visits a health care clinic. The client's diabetes mellitus was previously well controlled with daily glyburide (DiaBeta). However, the fasting blood glucose level has recently been in the range of 180 to 200 mg/dL. Which medication, if added to the client's regimen, may have contributed to the hyperglycemia?
- A. Prednisone
- B. Phenelzine (Nardil)
- C. Atenolol (Tenormin)
- D. Allopurinol (Zyloprim)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Prednisone is known to reduce the effectiveness of oral hypoglycemic medications like glyburide and insulin, which can result in hyperglycemia. Therefore, the addition of prednisone to the client's regimen could have contributed to the elevated fasting blood glucose levels observed.
4. A client is taking lansoprazole (Prevacid) for the chronic management of Zollinger-Ellison syndrome. The nurse advises the client to take which of the following products if needed for a headache?
- A. Naproxen (Aleve)
- B. Ibuprofen (Advil)
- C. Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
- D. Acetylsalicylic acid (aspirin)
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Acetaminophen is the preferred choice for pain relief in individuals taking lansoprazole for Zollinger-Ellison syndrome due to its lower risk of stomach irritation compared to NSAIDs like ibuprofen and aspirin. Naproxen, ibuprofen, and aspirin are NSAIDs that can increase the risk of stomach irritation and bleeding, which is why they are not recommended for individuals with Zollinger-Ellison syndrome who are already on lansoprazole to reduce stomach acid production.
5. An older client recently has been taking cimetidine (Tagamet). The nurse monitors the client for which most frequent central nervous system side effect of this medication?
- A. Tremors
- B. Dizziness
- C. Confusion
- D. Hallucinations
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Older clients are particularly vulnerable to central nervous system side effects of cimetidine. The most frequent side effect is confusion. It is crucial for nurses to be vigilant in monitoring for confusion as it can impact the client's safety and well-being. While tremors, dizziness, and hallucinations are possible side effects, confusion is the most common in older clients taking cimetidine.
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