Nursing Elites

1. A client who had a kidney transplant is receiving therapy with cyclosporine (Sandimmune). Which statement by the client indicates a need for further instruction?

• A. I need to obtain a yearly influenza vaccine.
• B. I need to have dental checkups every 3 months.
• C. I need to self-monitor my blood pressure at home.
• D. I need to call the health care provider (HCP) if my urine volume decreases or my urine becomes cloudy.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Cyclosporine is an immunosuppressant that can reduce the effectiveness of vaccines. Clients should avoid vaccinations without consulting their health care provider to prevent potential complications or reduced efficacy of the vaccines.

2. An older client recently has been taking cimetidine (Tagamet). The nurse monitors the client for which most frequent central nervous system side effect of this medication?

• A. Tremors
• B. Dizziness
• C. Confusion
• D. Hallucinations

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Older clients are particularly vulnerable to central nervous system side effects of cimetidine. The most frequent side effect is confusion. It is crucial for nurses to be vigilant in monitoring for confusion as it can impact the client's safety and well-being. While tremors, dizziness, and hallucinations are possible side effects, confusion is the most common in older clients taking cimetidine.

3. A client has been prescribed furosemide (Lasix), and the nurse is monitoring for adverse effects associated with this medication. Which of the following should the nurse recognize as a potential adverse effect? Select one that doesn't apply.

• A. Nausea
• B. Tinnitus
• C. Hypotension
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to adverse effects such as tinnitus, hypotension, and hypokalemia. While nausea is a common side effect of many medications, it is not typically associated with furosemide. Therefore, the nurse should recognize nausea as a potential adverse effect that doesn't apply to furosemide.

4. The healthcare provider prescribes exenatide (Byetta) for a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus who takes insulin. What is the appropriate intervention for the nurse?

• A. Administer the medication within 60 minutes before the morning and evening meal.
• B. Withhold the medication and question the prescription with the healthcare provider.
• C. Monitor the client for gastrointestinal side effects after administration of the medication.
• D. Withdraw the insulin from the Penlet into an insulin syringe to prepare for administration.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Exenatide (Byetta) is specifically indicated for the treatment of type 2 diabetes mellitus and is not recommended for clients with type 1 diabetes mellitus who are taking insulin. Choice A is incorrect because exenatide should not be administered to a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus who takes insulin. Choice C is not the most appropriate initial action when the prescription is not suitable for the client. Choice D is unrelated to the administration of exenatide. Therefore, the appropriate intervention for the nurse is to withhold the medication and question the prescription with the healthcare provider to ensure the safety and appropriateness of the treatment plan for the client.

5. A healthcare provider has written a prescription for ranitidine (Zantac), once daily. When should the nurse schedule the medication?

• A. At bedtime
• B. After lunch
• C. With supper
• D. Before breakfast

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: At bedtime. Ranitidine should be scheduled at bedtime because it provides a prolonged effect and offers the greatest protection of the gastric mucosa. Administering it at this time helps in managing nocturnal acid breakthrough and providing relief during the night.

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