HESI RN
Evolve HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam
1. A client who has received sodium bicarbonate in large amounts is at risk for metabolic alkalosis. For which of the following signs and symptoms does the nurse assess this client?
- A. Disorientation and dyspnea
- B. Drowsiness, headache, and tachypnea
- C. Tachypnea, dizziness, and paresthesias
- D. Dysrhythmias and decreased respiratory rate and depth
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. A client with metabolic alkalosis may present with dysrhythmias and a decreased respiratory rate and depth as the body tries to compensate by retaining carbon dioxide. Options A, B, and C do not typically correlate with the signs and symptoms of metabolic alkalosis. Disorientation, dyspnea, drowsiness, headache, tachypnea, dizziness, and paresthesias are not commonly associated with metabolic alkalosis. Therefore, they are incorrect choices.
2. The client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is being taught about the necessary sodium restriction in the diet to prevent edema and hypertension. Which statement by the client indicates more teaching is needed?
- A. I am thrilled that I can continue to eat fast food.
- B. I will cut out bacon with my eggs every morning.
- C. My cooking style will change by not adding salt.
- D. I will probably lose weight by cutting out potato chips.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Choice A, 'I am thrilled that I can continue to eat fast food,' indicates a lack of understanding as fast food is typically high in sodium, which is detrimental for individuals with CKD. The client should be advised to avoid fast food due to its high sodium content. Choices B, C, and D demonstrate a good understanding of the need for sodium restriction in the diet to prevent complications associated with CKD. Cutting out bacon, avoiding salt in cooking, and eliminating high-sodium snacks like potato chips are all positive steps towards managing CKD.
3. A nurse cares for a client with diabetes mellitus who is prescribed metformin (Glucophage) and is scheduled for an intravenous urography. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Contact the provider and recommend discontinuing the metformin.
- B. Keep the client NPO for at least 6 hours prior to the examination.
- C. Check the client’s capillary artery blood glucose and administer prescribed insulin.
- D. Administer intravenous fluids to dilute and increase the excretion of dye.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Metformin can cause lactic acidosis and renal impairment as the result of an interaction with the dye. This drug must be discontinued for 48 hours before the procedure and not started again after the procedure until urine output is well established. The client’s health care provider needs to provide alternative therapy for the client until the metformin can be resumed. Keeping the client NPO, checking the client’s blood glucose, and administering intravenous fluids should be part of the client’s plan of care, but are not the priority, as the examination should not occur while the client is still taking metformin.
4. The healthcare professional assesses a client with petechiae and ecchymosis scattered across the arms and legs. Which laboratory results should the healthcare professional review?
- A. Red blood cell count
- B. Platelet count
- C. Hemoglobin levels
- D. White blood cell count
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The platelet count is the most appropriate laboratory result to review in a client presenting with petechiae and ecchymosis. Petechiae and ecchymosis are indicative of potential bleeding issues, which can be caused by low platelet count or impaired platelet function. Platelets are essential for clotting, and a low platelet count can lead to bleeding disorders. Reviewing the platelet count will provide valuable information about the client's clotting ability. Choice A, red blood cell count, is not typically associated with petechiae and ecchymosis. Hemoglobin levels (Choice C) are more related to anemia than bleeding disorders like thrombocytopenia. White blood cell count (Choice D) is not directly linked to the presence of petechiae and ecchymosis, which are more specific to platelet-related issues.
5. Prior to administering tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA), the nurse should assess the client for which of the following contraindications to administering the drug?
- A. Age over 60 years.
- B. History of cerebral hemorrhage.
- C. History of heart failure.
- D. Cigarette smoking.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: History of cerebral hemorrhage. A history of cerebral hemorrhage is a contraindication to t-PA administration because of the increased risk of bleeding. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Age over 60 years is not a contraindication for t-PA administration. While older age may pose some risks, it is not an absolute contraindication. History of heart failure is not a direct contraindication to t-PA administration. Cigarette smoking, while a risk factor for cardiovascular disease, is not a specific contraindication for t-PA administration.
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