HESI RN
Evolve HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam
1. A client who has received sodium bicarbonate in large amounts is at risk for metabolic alkalosis. For which of the following signs and symptoms does the nurse assess this client?
- A. Disorientation and dyspnea
- B. Drowsiness, headache, and tachypnea
- C. Tachypnea, dizziness, and paresthesias
- D. Dysrhythmias and decreased respiratory rate and depth
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. A client with metabolic alkalosis may present with dysrhythmias and a decreased respiratory rate and depth as the body tries to compensate by retaining carbon dioxide. Options A, B, and C do not typically correlate with the signs and symptoms of metabolic alkalosis. Disorientation, dyspnea, drowsiness, headache, tachypnea, dizziness, and paresthesias are not commonly associated with metabolic alkalosis. Therefore, they are incorrect choices.
2. Why is the combination drug trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) necessary?
- A. To broaden the antibacterial spectrum.
- B. To decrease bacterial resistance.
- C. To improve the taste.
- D. To minimize toxic effects.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: To decrease bacterial resistance. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) is a combination drug used to prevent bacterial resistance to sulfonamides. It works by targeting different steps in the bacterial metabolic pathway, making it harder for bacteria to develop resistance. Choice A is incorrect because the combination does not broaden the antibacterial spectrum; instead, it enhances effectiveness against specific bacteria. Choice C is incorrect as taste improvement is not the primary reason for combining these drugs. Choice D is incorrect because while combination therapy can sometimes help minimize toxic effects, the primary purpose in this case is to address bacterial resistance.
3. A nurse is preparing for intershift report when a nurse’s aide pulls an emergency call light in a client’s room. Upon answering the light, the nurse finds a client who returned from surgery earlier in the day experiencing tachycardia and tachypnea. The client’s blood pressure is 88/60 mm Hg. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Calling the physician
- B. Checking the hourly urine output
- C. Checking the IV site for infiltration
- D. Placing the client in a modified Trendelenburg position
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The client is exhibiting signs of shock, indicated by tachycardia, tachypnea, and hypotension. Placing the client in a modified Trendelenburg position is the initial action to improve venous return, cardiac output, and subsequently increase blood pressure. This position helps redistribute blood flow to vital organs. Calling the physician should follow once immediate intervention has been initiated. Checking the hourly urine output and IV site are important assessments but are secondary to addressing the client's hemodynamic instability and potential for shock.
4. A young female client prescribed amoxicillin (Amoxil) for a urinary tract infection is being taught by a nurse. Which statement should the nurse include in this client’s teaching?
- A. Use a second form of birth control while taking this medication.
- B. You will experience increased menstrual bleeding while on this medication.
- C. You may experience an irregular heartbeat while on this medication.
- D. Watch for blood in your urine while taking this drug.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct statement for the nurse to include in the teaching is to advise the client to use a second form of birth control while taking amoxicillin. Penicillin, like amoxicillin, may reduce the effectiveness of estrogen-containing contraceptives, making it important to use additional contraceptive measures. The incorrect choices are B, C, and D. Increased menstrual bleeding, irregular heartbeat, or blood in the urine are not common side effects associated with amoxicillin use for a urinary tract infection.
5. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus has influenza. The nurse should instruct the client to:
- A. Increase the frequency of self-monitoring (blood glucose testing).
- B. Reduce food intake to alleviate nausea.
- C. Discontinue the insulin dose if unable to eat.
- D. Take the normal dose of insulin.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: During illness, individuals with type 1 diabetes mellitus may experience increased insulin requirements due to factors such as stress and the release of counterregulatory hormones. Increasing the frequency of self-monitoring, as stated in choice A, is crucial to closely monitor and adjust insulin doses as needed. Choice B, reducing food intake to alleviate nausea, is incorrect as it may lead to hypoglycemia and does not address the increased insulin needs during illness. Choice C, discontinuing the insulin dose if unable to eat, is dangerous as it can result in uncontrolled hyperglycemia. Choice D, taking the normal dose of insulin, may not be sufficient during illness when insulin requirements are likely elevated.
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