Nursing Elites

1. A client who has received sodium bicarbonate in large amounts is at risk for metabolic alkalosis. For which of the following signs and symptoms does the nurse assess this client?

• A. Disorientation and dyspnea
• B. Drowsiness, headache, and tachypnea
• C. Tachypnea, dizziness, and paresthesias
• D. Dysrhythmias and decreased respiratory rate and depth

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A client with metabolic alkalosis may present with dysrhythmias and a decreased respiratory rate and depth as the body tries to compensate by retaining carbon dioxide. Options A, B, and C do not typically correlate with the signs and symptoms of metabolic alkalosis. Disorientation, dyspnea, drowsiness, headache, tachypnea, dizziness, and paresthesias are not commonly associated with metabolic alkalosis. Therefore, they are incorrect choices.

2. A nurse reviews a female client’s laboratory results. Which result from the client’s urinalysis should the nurse recognize as abnormal?

• A. pH 5.6
• B. Ketone bodies present
• C. Specific gravity of 1.020
• D. Clear and yellow color

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ketone bodies present. Ketone bodies in urine indicate abnormal metabolism, specifically the incomplete breakdown of fatty acids. Normally, there should be no ketones present in urine. Ketone bodies are produced when the body uses fat sources instead of glucose for cellular energy. A pH range between 4.6 and 8, a specific gravity between 1.005 and 1.030, and clear yellow color in urine are considered normal findings for a female client’s urinalysis. Therefore, options A, C, and D are within normal ranges and not indicative of abnormal results in the urinalysis.

3. An overweight client taking warfarin (Coumadin) has dry skin due to decreased arterial blood flow. What should the nurse instruct the client to do? Select all that apply.

• A. Apply lanolin or petroleum jelly to intact skin.
• B. Follow a reduced-calorie, reduced-fat diet.
• C. Inspect the involved areas daily for new ulcerations.
• D. Instruct the client to limit activities of daily living (ADLs).

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To address dry skin and prevent chronic ulcers and infections in an overweight client on warfarin with decreased arterial blood flow, the nurse should instruct the client to apply lanolin or petroleum jelly to intact skin. This helps maintain skin integrity and moisture. Following a reduced-calorie, reduced-fat diet (Choice B) may be beneficial for weight management but is not directly related to skin care. Inspecting involved areas daily for new ulcerations (Choice C) is important for skin assessment and early intervention but does not specifically address dry skin. Instructing the client to limit activities of daily living (ADLs) (Choice D) is not necessary for addressing dry skin; in fact, promoting mobility and circulation through appropriate activities is crucial.

4. In a patient with liver cirrhosis, which of the following lab results would be expected?

• A. Increased bilirubin levels.
• B. Decreased albumin levels.
• C. Increased liver enzymes.
• D. Decreased platelet count.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a patient with liver cirrhosis, increased bilirubin levels would be expected. Liver cirrhosis leads to impaired liver function, causing a decrease in the liver's ability to process bilirubin, leading to its accumulation in the blood. This results in elevated bilirubin levels. Decreased albumin levels (choice B) may occur in liver cirrhosis due to impaired liver synthesis of proteins, but it is not as specific as increased bilirubin levels. Increased liver enzymes (choice C) can be seen in liver damage but are not as characteristic as elevated bilirubin levels. Decreased platelet count (choice D) can occur in liver cirrhosis due to hypersplenism, but it is not as specific as increased bilirubin levels in this context.

5. In the change-of-shift report, the nurse is told that a client has a Stage 2 pressure ulcer. Which ulcer appearance is most likely to be observed?

• A. Shallow open ulcer with a red-pink wound bed.
• B. A deep pocket of infection and necrotic tissues.
• C. An area of erythema that is painful to touch.
• D. Visible subcutaneous tissue with sloughing.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A Stage 2 pressure ulcer typically presents as a shallow open ulcer with a red-pink wound bed. This appearance is characteristic of a Stage 2 pressure ulcer where there is partial thickness skin loss involving the epidermis and possibly the dermis. Choice B, a deep pocket of infection and necrotic tissues, is more indicative of a Stage 3 or Stage 4 pressure ulcer where the ulcer extends into deeper tissue layers. Choice C, an area of erythema that is painful to touch, is more commonly seen in early-stage pressure ulcers such as Stage 1. Choice D, visible subcutaneous tissue with sloughing, is characteristic of a more severe stage of pressure ulcer beyond Stage 2.

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