Nursing Elites

1. A client who has just undergone bronchoscopy was returned to the nursing unit 1 hour ago. With which assessment finding is the nurse most concerned?

• A. Oxygen saturation of 97%
• B. Equal breath sounds in both lungs
• C. Absence of cough and gag reflexes
• D. Respiratory rate of 20 breaths/min

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. The absence of cough and gag reflexes is the most concerning finding for the nurse because it indicates a lack of protective airway reflexes, putting the client at risk of aspiration. Oxygen saturation of 97% is within the normal range and indicates adequate oxygenation. Equal breath sounds in both lungs are a positive finding, indicating no significant abnormalities. A respiratory rate of 20 breaths/min is also within the normal range and does not raise immediate concerns. Therefore, the absence of cough and gag reflexes poses the highest risk to the client's airway safety.

2. When obtaining the health history of a client suspected of having bladder cancer, which question should the nurse ask to determine the client's risk factors?

• A. Do you smoke cigarettes?
• B. Do you consume alcohol?
• C. Do you use recreational drugs?
• D. Do you take any prescription drugs?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Do you smoke cigarettes?' Smoking is a major risk factor for bladder cancer. Cigarette smoke contains harmful chemicals that can accumulate in the urine and damage the lining of the bladder, increasing the risk of developing cancer. Alcohol use, recreational drug use, and most prescription drugs are not directly linked to an increased risk of bladder cancer. It is important for the nurse to assess smoking history as a significant risk factor in determining the client's risk for bladder cancer.

3. A child who weighs 10 kg will begin taking oral trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX). The liquid preparation contains 40 mg of TMP and 200 mg of SMX per 5 mL. The nurse determines that the child’s dose should be 8 mg of TMP and 40 mg of SMX/kg/day divided into two doses. Which order for this child is correct?

• A. 5 mL PO BID
• B. 5 mL PO daily
• C. 10 mL PO BID
• D. 10 mL PO daily

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: '5 mL PO BID.' To calculate the child’s daily dose requirement, you multiply the child's weight (10 kg) by the prescribed dosage per kg, which is 8 mg for TMP and 40 mg for SMX. This results in a total daily requirement of 80 mg of TMP and 400 mg of SMX. To divide this into two doses, each dose should contain half of the total daily requirement, which is 40 mg TMP and 200 mg SMX. Since the liquid preparation contains 40 mg of TMP and 200 mg of SMX per 5 mL, the correct dose per administration is 5 mL. Therefore, 5 mL PO BID is the correct order. Choice B, '5 mL PO daily,' is incorrect as the total daily dose needs to be divided into two doses. Choices C and D, '10 mL PO BID' and '10 mL PO daily,' respectively, are incorrect as they do not align with the calculated dosage requirements based on the child's weight and the prescribed dosage per kg.

4. A client has just regained bowel sounds after undergoing surgery. The physician has prescribed a clear liquid diet for the client. Which of the following items should the nurse ensure is available in the client’s room before allowing the client to drink?

• A. Straw
• B. Napkin
• C. Oxygen saturation monitor
• D. Suction equipment

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After surgery, when a client has just regained bowel sounds and is prescribed a clear liquid diet, the nurse needs to consider the possibility of impaired swallow reflexes due to anesthesia effects, leading to an increased risk of aspiration. Despite checking the gag and swallow reflexes before offering fluids, having suction equipment readily available in the client's room is essential to manage any potential aspiration risk. Therefore, the correct answer is suction equipment (choice D). Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because while a straw, napkin, and oxygen saturation monitor may be useful in other situations, they are not directly related to managing the risk of aspiration associated with offering fluids to a client post-surgery.

5. A nurse reviews the urinalysis of a client and notes the presence of glucose. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Document findings and continue to monitor the client.
• B. Contact the provider and recommend a 24-hour urine test.
• C. Review the client’s recent dietary selections.
• D. Perform a capillary artery glucose assessment.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Glucose normally is not found in the urine. The normal renal threshold for glucose is about 220 mg/dL, which means that a person whose blood glucose is less than 220 mg/dL will not have glucose in the urine. A positive finding for glucose on urinalysis indicates high blood sugar. The most appropriate action would be to perform a capillary artery glucose assessment. The client needs further evaluation for this abnormal result; therefore, documenting and continuing to monitor is not appropriate. Requesting a 24-hour urine test or reviewing the client’s dietary selections will not assist the nurse to make a clinical decision related to this abnormality.

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