HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Practice Quiz
1. A nurse reviews the urinalysis of a client and notes the presence of glucose. Which action should the nurse take?
- A. Document findings and continue to monitor the client.
- B. Contact the provider and recommend a 24-hour urine test.
- C. Review the client’s recent dietary selections.
- D. Perform a capillary artery glucose assessment.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Glucose normally is not found in the urine. The normal renal threshold for glucose is about 220 mg/dL, which means that a person whose blood glucose is less than 220 mg/dL will not have glucose in the urine. A positive finding for glucose on urinalysis indicates high blood sugar. The most appropriate action would be to perform a capillary artery glucose assessment. The client needs further evaluation for this abnormal result; therefore, documenting and continuing to monitor is not appropriate. Requesting a 24-hour urine test or reviewing the client’s dietary selections will not assist the nurse to make a clinical decision related to this abnormality.
2. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is beginning oxygen therapy asks the nurse why the flow rate cannot be increased to more than 2 L/min. The nurse responds that this would be harmful because it could:
- A. Be drying to nasal passages
- B. Decrease the client’s oxygen-based respiratory drive
- C. Increase the risk of pneumonia due to drier air passages
- D. Decrease the client’s carbon dioxide–based respiratory drive
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Increasing the oxygen flow rate beyond 2 L/min for a client with COPD can decrease the client's oxygen-based respiratory drive. In clients with COPD, the natural respiratory drive is based on the level of oxygen instead of carbon dioxide, as seen in healthy individuals. Increasing the oxygen level independently can suppress the drive to breathe, leading to respiratory failure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because drying of nasal passages, increased risk of pneumonia due to drier air passages, and decreasing the carbon dioxide-based respiratory drive are not the primary concerns associated with increasing the oxygen flow rate in a client with COPD.
3. What is the most common cause of peptic ulcers?
- A. Helicobacter pylori infection
- B. NSAID use
- C. Excessive alcohol consumption
- D. Stress
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Helicobacter pylori infection is the most common cause of peptic ulcers. This bacterium can weaken the protective mucous coating of the stomach and duodenum, allowing acid to get through to the sensitive lining beneath. NSAID use (Choice B) can also cause peptic ulcers by disrupting the stomach's mucosal barrier. Excessive alcohol consumption (Choice C) and stress (Choice D) can exacerbate and contribute to ulcer formation but are not the primary cause.
4. A client arrived to the medical-surgical unit 4 hours after a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP). A triple-lumen catheter for continuous bladder irrigation with normal saline is infusing, and the nurse observes dark, pink-tinged outflow with blood clots in the tubing and collection bag. Which action should the nurse take?
- A. Monitoring catheter drainage
- B. Decreasing the flow rate
- C. Irrigating the catheter manually
- D. Discontinuing infusing the solution
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should choose option C - irrigating the catheter manually. This action can help clear the clots from the catheter and ensure proper bladder drainage. Monitoring catheter drainage (option A) alone may not address the issue of clots obstructing the flow. Decreasing the flow rate (option B) could potentially worsen clot formation. Discontinuing the infusing solution (option D) without addressing the clots first may lead to inadequate irrigation and increase the risk of complications.
5. A middle-aged adult with a family history of CAD has the following: total cholesterol 198 (11 mmol/L); LDL cholesterol 120 (6.7 mmol/L); HDL cholesterol 58 (3.2 mmol/L); triglycerides 148 (8.2 mmol/L); blood sugar 102 (5.7 mmol/L); and C-reactive protein (CRP) 4.2. The health care provider prescribes a statin medication and aspirin. The client asks the nurse why these medications are needed. Which is the best response by the nurse?
- A. The labs indicate severe hyperlipidemia and the medications will lower your LDL, along with a low-fat diet.
- B. The triglycerides are elevated and will not return to normal without these medications.
- C. The CRP is elevated indicating inflammation seen in cardiovascular disease, which can be lowered by the medications prescribed.
- D. These medications will reduce the risk of type 2 diabetes.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: CRP is a marker of inflammation, which is elevated in cardiovascular disease. Statins and aspirin help lower CRP and reduce the risk of heart attacks and strokes.
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