Nursing Elites

1. A client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) reports nausea and dizziness. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Check the client's blood glucose level.
• B. Check the client's vital signs and blood pressure.
• C. Decrease the infusion rate of TPN.
• D. Administer antiemetic medication as prescribed.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) reports symptoms like nausea and dizziness, the first action the nurse should take is to check the client's vital signs and blood pressure. This assessment helps determine the client's overall stability and can provide crucial information to guide further interventions. Checking the blood glucose level (Choice A) may be relevant but is not the priority in this situation. Decreasing the infusion rate of TPN (Choice C) may be necessary but should be based on assessment findings. Administering antiemetic medication (Choice D) should not be the initial action without first assessing the client's vital signs.

2. A client with Type 2 diabetes is admitted with frequent hyperglycemic episodes and glycosylated hemoglobin (A1C) of 10%. What actions should the nurse include in the client's plan of care?

• A. Mixing glargine with aspart insulin to manage glucose levels.
• B. Teaching foot care to prevent injuries.
• C. Coordinating carbohydrate-controlled meals and subcutaneous injections.
• D. Reviewing site rotation for insulin injections.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In managing a client with Type 2 diabetes experiencing frequent hyperglycemic episodes and with a high A1C level, it is crucial to coordinate carbohydrate-controlled meals and subcutaneous injections. This approach helps regulate blood glucose levels effectively. Mixing glargine with aspart insulin (Choice A) is not a recommended practice as these insulins have different onset and peak times. Teaching foot care (Choice B) is important in diabetes management but is not the priority in this scenario. Reviewing site rotation for insulin injections (Choice D) is important to prevent lipodystrophy but is not the immediate action needed to address the client's hyperglycemia and high A1C level.

3. A client with hypoglycemia is unresponsive. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Administer intravenous dextrose.
• B. Check the client's blood glucose level.
• C. Administer glucagon intramuscularly.
• D. Prepare to administer oral glucose.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer glucagon intramuscularly. In an unresponsive hypoglycemic client, administering glucagon intramuscularly is the priority action as it helps raise blood glucose levels quickly. Intravenous dextrose may be challenging to administer in an unresponsive client. Checking the client's blood glucose level is important but not the priority when the client is unresponsive. Preparing to administer oral glucose is not ideal for an unresponsive client as they may not be able to swallow.

4. A client is newly prescribed lithium for bipolar disorder. Which finding is most important to report to the healthcare provider?

• A. A serum lithium level of 1.2 mEq/L.
• B. Fine hand tremors noted after starting the medication.
• C. A blood pressure of 110/60 mmHg.
• D. A serum sodium level of 140 mEq/L.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Fine hand tremors noted after starting lithium are an early sign of lithium toxicity. It is crucial to report this finding to the healthcare provider promptly. Adjusting the dose or monitoring serum levels more closely may be necessary to prevent further toxicity. Choice A, a serum lithium level of 1.2 mEq/L, is within the therapeutic range (0.6-1.2 mEq/L) for treating bipolar disorder. Choice C, a blood pressure of 110/60 mmHg, and Choice D, a serum sodium level of 140 mEq/L, are within normal limits and not directly related to lithium therapy or toxicity.

5. A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving heparin and reports tarry stools. What should the nurse do?

• A. Prepare to administer warfarin.
• B. Assess characteristics of the client's pain.
• C. Monitor stools for blood and review PTT results.
• D. Continue the heparin and prepare to administer Vitamin K.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client on heparin reports tarry stools, it can be indicative of gastrointestinal bleeding. The correct action for the nurse is to monitor the stools for blood and review the Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT) results. This is essential to detect any potential bleeding complications associated with heparin therapy. Option A is incorrect because warfarin is not the immediate intervention for tarry stools in a client on heparin. Option B is irrelevant to the situation described. Option D is incorrect as Vitamin K is the antidote for warfarin, not heparin.

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