a client receiving total parenteral nutrition tpn reports nausea and dizziness what action should the nurse take first
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN Exit Exam Capstone

1. A client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) reports nausea and dizziness. What action should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) reports symptoms like nausea and dizziness, the first action the nurse should take is to check the client's vital signs and blood pressure. This assessment helps determine the client's overall stability and can provide crucial information to guide further interventions. Checking the blood glucose level (Choice A) may be relevant but is not the priority in this situation. Decreasing the infusion rate of TPN (Choice C) may be necessary but should be based on assessment findings. Administering antiemetic medication (Choice D) should not be the initial action without first assessing the client's vital signs.

2. A client with a history of stroke is receiving warfarin. What is the nurse's priority assessment?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to assess for signs of bleeding. Warfarin is an anticoagulant that increases the risk of bleeding in patients. Monitoring for signs of bleeding such as easy bruising, petechiae, blood in urine or stool, or unusual bleeding from gums is crucial. Checking the client's blood pressure (choice A) is important but not the priority in this situation. Assessing the client's neurological status (choice C) is essential in stroke patients but is not the priority related to warfarin therapy. Monitoring intake and output (choice D) is important for overall assessment but is not the priority when a client is on warfarin, as assessing for bleeding takes precedence.

3. The nurse assesses a 72-year-old client who was admitted for right-sided congestive heart failure. Which of the following would the nurse anticipate finding?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Correct! In right-sided congestive heart failure, jugular vein distention is a common finding due to the backup of blood in the systemic circulation. This results in increased venous pressure, leading to jugular vein distention. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because decreased urinary output, pleural effusion, and bibasilar crackles are more commonly associated with other conditions such as kidney dysfunction, lung issues, and pulmonary edema.

4. A client with pheochromocytoma is admitted to the hospital. Which intervention has the highest priority?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Start intravenous fluids at a fast rate. In a client with pheochromocytoma, the highest priority intervention is to ensure adequate intravascular volume before initiating any other treatment. This helps prevent a sudden drop in blood pressure that can occur due to the release of catecholamines during tumor manipulation. While monitoring blood pressure frequently is essential, ensuring adequate intravascular volume takes precedence. Administering pain medication and antihypertensive medications are important but are not the highest priority in the initial management of pheochromocytoma.

5. A client is admitted to isolation with active tuberculosis. What infection control measures should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When caring for a client with active tuberculosis, it is crucial to implement negative pressure rooms and contact precautions to prevent the spread of infection. Choice A, initiating protective environment precautions, is incorrect as this is not the recommended approach for tuberculosis. Choice B, using droplet precautions only, is insufficient as tuberculosis requires additional precautions. Choice C, ensuring a positive pressure environment in the room, is incorrect because negative pressure rooms are necessary to contain airborne pathogens like tuberculosis. Therefore, the most appropriate measures include implementing negative pressure rooms and contact precautions.

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