HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam Capstone
1. An older client is admitted to the intensive care unit unconscious after several days of vomiting and diarrhea. The nurse inserts a urinary catheter and observes dark amber urine output. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Begin dopamine infusion at 2 mcg/kg/minute.
- B. Begin potassium chloride 10 mEq over 1 hour.
- C. Give a bolus of 0.9% sodium chloride 1000 mL over 30 minutes.
- D. Administer promethazine 25 mg IV push.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the priority intervention is to give a bolus of 0.9% sodium chloride 1000 mL over 30 minutes. The client's dark amber urine output indicates dehydration and hypovolemia, requiring rapid fluid resuscitation. Dopamine infusion, potassium chloride, and promethazine are not the initial interventions needed for a client with hypovolemic symptoms.
2. A client with Alzheimer’s disease is becoming increasingly confused. What action should the nurse take first?
- A. Reorient the client to time and place.
- B. Monitor the client’s vital signs.
- C. Provide the client with calming activities to reduce confusion.
- D. Consult with the healthcare provider about adjusting the client’s medication.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first when a client with Alzheimer’s disease is becoming increasingly confused is to monitor the client’s vital signs (Choice B). Increased confusion in Alzheimer’s disease patients may indicate underlying issues like infection, dehydration, or medication side effects. Monitoring vital signs is crucial in identifying any potential causes of the confusion. Choices A, C, and D are not the priority in this situation. Reorienting the client to time and place (Choice A) can be helpful but is not the first priority. Providing calming activities (Choice C) and consulting with the healthcare provider about medication adjustments (Choice D) may be necessary but should come after assessing the client's vital signs to rule out immediate physical causes of confusion.
3. During an assessment of a client with congestive heart failure, the nurse is most likely to hear which of the following upon auscultation of the heart?
- A. S3 ventricular gallop
- B. Apical click
- C. Systolic murmur
- D. Split S2
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: An S3 ventricular gallop is an abnormal heart sound commonly heard in clients with congestive heart failure. This sound is indicative of fluid overload or volume expansion in the ventricles, which is often present in heart failure. <br> Incorrect Answers: <br> B: An apical click is not typically associated with congestive heart failure. <br> C: A systolic murmur may be heard in various cardiac conditions but is not specific to congestive heart failure. <br> D: A split S2 refers to a normal heart sound caused by the closure of the aortic and pulmonic valves at slightly different times during inspiration, not directly related to congestive heart failure.
4. A client with multiple sclerosis is receiving intravenous methylprednisolone. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Monitor blood glucose levels every 6 hours.
- B. Monitor for signs of infection.
- C. Encourage increased oral fluid intake.
- D. Check the client's temperature every 4 hours.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a client with multiple sclerosis is receiving intravenous methylprednisolone, the nurse's priority action is to monitor for signs of infection. Corticosteroids like methylprednisolone can suppress the immune system, increasing the risk of infection. Monitoring for signs of infection allows for early detection and prompt intervention. Monitoring blood glucose levels may be important in clients receiving corticosteroids for prolonged periods, but it is not the priority in this case. Encouraging increased oral fluid intake is generally beneficial but not the priority over monitoring for infection. Checking the client's temperature is important but not the priority action compared to monitoring for signs of infection.
5. A client with lung cancer is admitted to palliative care. What is the nurse's priority assessment?
- A. Monitor respiratory status and oxygenation.
- B. Evaluate the client's mental status and cognition.
- C. Check the client’s pain level and provide comfort.
- D. Assess the client’s nutritional status and appetite.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: Monitoring respiratory status and oxygenation is crucial in clients with lung cancer, as metastasis to the lungs or pleural effusion can compromise breathing. This assessment helps in early identification of respiratory distress and the need for interventions to maintain adequate oxygenation. Choice B is important but not the priority in this situation. Evaluating mental status and cognition should follow after ensuring the client's physiological needs are met. Choice C, checking pain level and providing comfort, is essential but secondary to assessing respiratory status. Choice D, assessing nutritional status and appetite, is also important but not the priority when the client's breathing is at risk.
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