HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet Capstone
1. An older client with type 1 diabetes arrives at the clinic with abdominal cramping, vomiting, lethargy, and confusion. What should the nurse implement first?
- A. Start an IV infusion of normal saline.
- B. Obtain a serum potassium level.
- C. Administer the client's usual dose of insulin.
- D. Assess the pupillary response to light.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Start an IV infusion of normal saline. The client is showing signs of dehydration, such as abdominal cramping, vomiting, lethargy, and confusion, which can be exacerbated by hyperglycemia. Rehydration is the initial priority to address the fluid imbalance. Option B, obtaining a serum potassium level, though important in the management of diabetes, is not the immediate priority over rehydration. Option C, administering the client's usual dose of insulin, should only be done after addressing the dehydration and confirming the client's blood glucose levels. Option D, assessing the pupillary response to light, is not the most urgent intervention needed in this situation compared to rehydration to correct fluid imbalance.
2. What assessment is most important for the nurse to perform for a client with dehydration receiving IV fluids?
- A. Monitor the client’s electrolyte levels.
- B. Check the client’s urine output hourly.
- C. Assess the client’s skin turgor regularly.
- D. Monitor the client’s blood pressure every 15 minutes.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client’s electrolyte levels. When a client is receiving IV fluids for dehydration, it is crucial to assess their electrolyte levels regularly. Dehydration can lead to imbalances in electrolytes, especially sodium and potassium, which are essential for maintaining fluid balance and proper organ function. Checking urine output (Choice B) is important but not as critical as monitoring electrolyte levels. Assessing skin turgor (Choice C) is an indirect method of assessing dehydration but does not provide specific information about electrolyte imbalances. Monitoring blood pressure (Choice D) is important but not the most critical assessment in this scenario as electrolyte imbalances can have a more direct impact on the client's condition.
3. A client with a 42-week gestation refuses induction. What is the most important action the nurse should take?
- A. Discuss alternative ways to support the client's birth plan.
- B. Explain the risks of induction after 42 weeks.
- C. Ask the healthcare provider to discuss the situation with the client.
- D. Discuss the characteristics of labor with oxytocin vs. natural labor.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The most important action for the nurse in this situation is to discuss alternative ways to support the client's birth plan. By doing so, the nurse can ensure that the client feels heard, respected, and supported in their decision-making process. While explaining the risks of induction after 42 weeks (Choice B) may be important, it is secondary to supporting the client's autonomy and preferences. Asking the healthcare provider to discuss the situation with the client (Choice C) may delay crucial communication and support that the nurse can provide. Discussing the characteristics of labor with oxytocin vs. natural labor (Choice D) is not the priority when the client has refused induction, as the focus should be on respecting their decision and exploring other options for support.
4. A client with Cushing's syndrome presents with excessive bruising and elevated blood glucose. What action should the nurse take first?
- A. Check the client's blood glucose level.
- B. Administer insulin per sliding scale protocol.
- C. Administer intravenous fluids.
- D. Check the client's skin for signs of bruising.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Excessive bruising and elevated blood glucose are common symptoms of Cushing's syndrome. The nurse should first check the client's blood glucose level to assess and address the hyperglycemia promptly. Administering insulin or IV fluids would be premature without knowing the current blood glucose level. Checking the skin for bruising, although important for overall assessment, does not address the immediate concern of elevated blood glucose.
5. What is the first action the nurse should take when treating a 6-year-old child who stepped on a rusty nail?
- A. Cleanse the foot with soap and water
- B. Instruct the parent about tetanus boosters
- C. Apply a sterile dressing and refer for a tetanus booster
- D. Elevate the foot and wrap in a compression bandage
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct first action when a 6-year-old child steps on a rusty nail is to instruct the parent about tetanus boosters. This is important because stepping on a rusty nail increases the risk of tetanus infection. Choice A is incorrect as cleansing the foot comes after addressing the tetanus risk. Choice C is not the first action and should be done after addressing the immediate risk of tetanus. Choice D is not necessary as the priority is to prevent tetanus infection.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access