Nursing Elites

1. An older client with type 1 diabetes arrives at the clinic with abdominal cramping, vomiting, lethargy, and confusion. What should the nurse implement first?

• A. Start an IV infusion of normal saline.
• B. Obtain a serum potassium level.
• C. Administer the client's usual dose of insulin.
• D. Assess the pupillary response to light.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Start an IV infusion of normal saline. The client is showing signs of dehydration, such as abdominal cramping, vomiting, lethargy, and confusion, which can be exacerbated by hyperglycemia. Rehydration is the initial priority to address the fluid imbalance. Option B, obtaining a serum potassium level, though important in the management of diabetes, is not the immediate priority over rehydration. Option C, administering the client's usual dose of insulin, should only be done after addressing the dehydration and confirming the client's blood glucose levels. Option D, assessing the pupillary response to light, is not the most urgent intervention needed in this situation compared to rehydration to correct fluid imbalance.

2. The nurse is performing a functional assessment for a client requiring nursing home care. Which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Question the client about the frequency of falls.
• B. Request the client to lie still during the assessment.
• C. Ask how often episodes of sundowning are experienced.
• D. Assist the client with values clarification about end-of-life care.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Question the client about the frequency of falls. In the elderly population, falls are a significant risk factor that can impact their functional abilities and safety. By assessing the frequency of falls, the nurse can identify potential risks and implement interventions to prevent future falls. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly address the primary focus of a functional assessment for nursing home care, which is to evaluate the client's functional status and identify areas that may require assistance or intervention.

3. A child has a nosebleed (epistaxis) while playing soccer. In what position should the nurse place the child?

• A. Position the child lying flat and apply pressure to the bridge of the nose.
• B. Position the child sitting up and leaning forward.
• C. Have the child tilt the head back and pinch the nose.
• D. Position the child lying on their side and apply ice to the nose.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to position the child sitting up and leaning forward. This position helps prevent blood from flowing down the throat, reducing the risk of choking or vomiting. Choice A is incorrect because lying flat can cause blood to flow down the throat. Choice C is wrong as tilting the head back may lead to blood entering the throat. Choice D is also incorrect as applying ice is not recommended for nosebleeds and lying on the side may not prevent blood from flowing down the throat.

4. A postoperative client with a history of diabetes mellitus is showing signs of hyperglycemia. What should the nurse assess first?

• A. Assess for signs of infection.
• B. Monitor the client’s fluid intake and output.
• C. Check the client’s capillary blood glucose level.
• D. Assess the client’s serum potassium level.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to check the client’s capillary blood glucose level first. In a postoperative client with a history of diabetes mellitus showing signs of hyperglycemia, assessing blood glucose levels is crucial to confirm hyperglycemia and initiate appropriate interventions. While signs of infection are important to assess due to the client's postoperative status and diabetic history, checking the blood glucose level takes precedence to address the immediate concern of hyperglycemia. Monitoring fluid intake and output is essential but not the priority in this scenario. Assessing the client’s serum potassium level is important for overall assessment but not the initial step when hyperglycemia is suspected.

5. A client receiving IV antibiotics for sepsis reports itching and has a rash on the chest. What is the nurse's first action?

• A. Administer an antihistamine as prescribed.
• B. Stop the infusion and notify the healthcare provider.
• C. Slow the infusion rate and monitor the client.
• D. Administer epinephrine subcutaneously.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first when a client receiving IV antibiotics for sepsis reports itching and a rash on the chest is to stop the infusion and notify the healthcare provider. This is crucial in preventing the allergic reaction from worsening. Administering an antihistamine (choice A) may address the symptoms but does not address the primary concern of stopping the infusion. Slowing the infusion rate and monitoring the client (choice C) may not be sufficient if the reaction is severe. Administering epinephrine subcutaneously (choice D) is not the first-line intervention for this situation.

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