HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet Capstone
1. An older client with type 1 diabetes arrives at the clinic with abdominal cramping, vomiting, lethargy, and confusion. What should the nurse implement first?
- A. Start an IV infusion of normal saline.
- B. Obtain a serum potassium level.
- C. Administer the client's usual dose of insulin.
- D. Assess the pupillary response to light.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Start an IV infusion of normal saline. The client is showing signs of dehydration, such as abdominal cramping, vomiting, lethargy, and confusion, which can be exacerbated by hyperglycemia. Rehydration is the initial priority to address the fluid imbalance. Option B, obtaining a serum potassium level, though important in the management of diabetes, is not the immediate priority over rehydration. Option C, administering the client's usual dose of insulin, should only be done after addressing the dehydration and confirming the client's blood glucose levels. Option D, assessing the pupillary response to light, is not the most urgent intervention needed in this situation compared to rehydration to correct fluid imbalance.
2. A client receiving lactulose for hepatic encephalopathy needs evaluation. Which assessment should the nurse prioritize?
- A. Percussion of the abdomen.
- B. Blood glucose level.
- C. Serum electrolytes.
- D. Level of consciousness.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Level of consciousness. When managing hepatic encephalopathy with lactulose, monitoring the client's level of consciousness is crucial as it is a key indicator of the therapeutic response to lactulose in reducing ammonia levels. Changes in consciousness can reflect the effectiveness of treatment and the progression of hepatic encephalopathy. Option A, percussion of the abdomen, is not directly related to evaluating the response to lactulose. Option B, blood glucose level, is important but not the priority in this context. Option C, serum electrolytes, while significant in liver disease, do not directly assess the impact of lactulose therapy on hepatic encephalopathy.
3. A client with Parkinson's disease is prescribed levodopa/carbidopa. The nurse instructs the client to take the medication with meals. Which rationale should the nurse provide for taking the medication with food?
- A. It enhances the effectiveness of the medication
- B. It helps to improve absorption
- C. It prevents orthostatic hypotension
- D. It reduces gastrointestinal upset
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'It reduces gastrointestinal upset.' Levodopa/carbidopa can cause nausea and other gastrointestinal side effects. Taking the medication with food can help reduce these side effects and improve the client's comfort. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because taking the medication with food does not primarily enhance effectiveness, improve absorption, or prevent orthostatic hypotension. The main reason for advising to take the medication with meals is to minimize gastrointestinal upset.
4. A client is receiving IV antibiotic therapy for sepsis. Which assessment finding indicates that the client's condition is improving?
- A. Urine output increases to 25 mL/hour
- B. Client reports feeling less fatigued
- C. Heart rate decreases from 120 to 110 beats per minute
- D. White blood cell count decreases from 15,000 to 9,000/mm3
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. A decrease in white blood cell count indicates that the infection is responding to treatment, making this the most objective indicator of improvement in a client with sepsis. Choices A, B, and C are subjective indicators and may not always directly correlate with the resolution of the underlying infection. While an increase in urine output, a client reporting feeling less fatigued, and a decrease in heart rate are positive signs, they are not as specific or directly related to the resolution of the infection as a decrease in white blood cell count.
5. A client reports that the skin around the edges of a wound is red and swollen. What is the nurse's priority intervention?
- A. Monitor for signs of infection
- B. Reinforce the wound dressing
- C. Contact the healthcare provider
- D. Apply a warm compress to the wound
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor for signs of infection. Redness and swelling around a wound are indicative of a potential infection. The priority intervention for the nurse is to closely monitor the wound for further signs of infection, such as increased drainage or fever. Reinforcing the wound dressing may be necessary, but it is not the priority when infection is suspected. Contacting the healthcare provider is important, but the nurse should first assess and monitor the wound to provide comprehensive information when contacting the provider. Applying a warm compress can potentially worsen the infection by promoting bacterial growth, so it is contraindicated in this situation.
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