Nursing Elites

1. A client with heart failure is prescribed digoxin. What assessment finding should the nurse report immediately?

• A. Bradycardia of 50 beats per minute.
• B. Heart rate of 110 beats per minute.
• C. Respiratory rate of 16 breaths per minute.
• D. Blood pressure of 130/80 mmHg.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bradycardia of 50 beats per minute. Bradycardia is a critical assessment finding in a client prescribed with digoxin, as it can indicate digoxin toxicity. Bradycardia is a known side effect of digoxin, and if left unaddressed, it can lead to serious complications such as arrhythmias or cardiac arrest. Both choices B, heart rate of 110 beats per minute, and C, respiratory rate of 16 breaths per minute, fall within normal ranges and do not raise immediate concerns. Choice D, blood pressure of 130/80 mmHg, is also within normal limits and does not indicate digoxin toxicity. Therefore, the nurse should report bradycardia promptly to prevent further complications.

2. A client with a chest tube following a pneumothorax is complaining of increased shortness of breath. What is the nurse's first action?

• A. Check for kinks in the chest tube tubing.
• B. Assess the client's lung sounds.
• C. Elevate the head of the bed to 30 degrees.
• D. Prepare for chest tube replacement.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct first action for a client with a chest tube experiencing increased shortness of breath is to elevate the head of the bed to 30 degrees. This position promotes lung expansion, improves oxygenation, and can help relieve shortness of breath. Checking for kinks in the chest tube tubing would be important but not the first action in this situation. Assessing the client's lung sounds is also important but not the initial priority. Preparing for chest tube replacement is not indicated based solely on the client's complaint of increased shortness of breath.

3. Before a client with renal failure undergoes hemodialysis, what should the nurse assess?

• A. Check the client's potassium levels
• B. Review the client's medication list
• C. Assess the client's peripheral pulses
• D. Monitor the client's urine output

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to check the client's potassium levels. Potassium levels are crucial to assess before hemodialysis in a client with renal failure because hyperkalemia (high potassium) is a common complication in these patients. Hemodialysis aims to remove excess potassium from the blood, making it essential to monitor potassium levels to determine the need for appropriate interventions. Reviewing the client's medication list (Choice B) is important for overall care but is not as directly relevant to the immediate concerns before hemodialysis. Assessing peripheral pulses (Choice C) and monitoring urine output (Choice D) are important aspects of nursing assessment but are not as directly related to the specific preparation needed before hemodialysis in a client with renal failure.

4. A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is prescribed anticoagulants. What should the nurse monitor closely?

• A. Monitor for signs of bleeding, such as bruising.
• B. Monitor the client’s vital signs every hour.
• C. Monitor for pain in the affected limb.
• D. Assess for signs of pulmonary embolism, such as sudden shortness of breath.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In clients with DVT, assessing for pulmonary embolism is crucial as a clot in the lungs can be life-threatening. Sudden shortness of breath or chest pain are key signs of a pulmonary embolism. While monitoring for signs of bleeding is important due to anticoagulant therapy, the immediate concern is detecting a potential pulmonary embolism. Monitoring vital signs and pain in the affected limb are relevant aspects of care but are not as urgent as assessing for pulmonary embolism in this scenario.

5. An unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) reports a weak pulse of 44 beats per minute in a client. What action should the charge nurse implement?

• A. Have the UAP recheck the pulse and report back.
• B. Have a licensed practical nurse (LPN) assess the client for apical-radial pulse deficit.
• C. Call the healthcare provider for further instructions.
• D. Immediately call the healthcare provider and prepare for transfer to critical care.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action is to have a licensed practical nurse (LPN) assess the client for an apical-radial pulse deficit. This assessment can provide further information about the client’s cardiovascular status and help determine if further intervention is necessary. Having the UAP recheck the pulse may delay appropriate assessment and intervention. Calling the healthcare provider for further instructions may not be necessary at this point unless the LPN assessment indicates a need for it. Immediately transferring the client to critical care without further assessment is not warranted based solely on the initial report of a weak pulse.

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