Nursing Elites

1. A male client reports that he took tadalafil 10 mg two hours ago and now feels flushed. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Instruct the client to increase oral fluid intake.
• B. Reassure the client that flushing is a common side effect.
• C. Advise the client to take nitroglycerin as a precaution.
• D. Ask the client to come to the emergency room.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Reassure the client that flushing is a common side effect. Tadalafil, a medication used for erectile dysfunction, can cause flushing as a common side effect. In this situation, the nurse should provide reassurance to the client that the flushing is expected and not necessarily a cause for concern. Increasing oral fluid intake (choice A) may be beneficial for other conditions but is not directly related to tadalafil-induced flushing. Advising the client to take nitroglycerin (choice C) is incorrect, as nitroglycerin is not indicated for flushing. Asking the client to come to the emergency room (choice D) is unnecessary at this point since flushing is a known side effect and does not typically require urgent medical attention.

2. A client with acute kidney injury (AKI) is experiencing hyperkalemia. What intervention should the nurse prioritize?

• A. Administer IV calcium gluconate.
• B. Administer sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate).
• C. Administer insulin with dextrose.
• D. Restrict potassium intake in the client's diet.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with acute kidney injury (AKI) experiencing hyperkalemia is to administer IV calcium gluconate. Calcium gluconate helps stabilize the myocardium and prevent life-threatening arrhythmias in hyperkalemia by antagonizing the cardiac effects of high potassium levels. Choice B, administering sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate), is used to lower potassium levels in the gastrointestinal tract but is not the priority in acute severe hyperkalemia. Choice C, administering insulin with dextrose, helps drive potassium into cells but is not the priority in a client at risk for arrhythmias due to hyperkalemia. Choice D, restricting potassium intake in the client's diet, is a long-term strategy but is not the immediate priority in managing acute hyperkalemia.

3. A client with tuberculosis (TB) is being discharged on isoniazid and rifampin. What instruction should the nurse prioritize?

• A. Complete the full course of antibiotics.
• B. Notify the healthcare provider if you experience tingling in your fingers.
• C. Use a disposable mask when in contact with others.
• D. Monitor liver function tests monthly.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to use a disposable mask when in contact with others. TB is highly contagious, and wearing a mask can help prevent the spread of the disease to others. Choice A is important but not the priority as using a mask directly impacts public health. Choice B is related to a potential side effect of isoniazid, peripheral neuropathy, but immediate healthcare provider notification is not required. Choice D is relevant due to the potential hepatotoxicity of isoniazid and rifampin, but it is not the priority instruction in this scenario.

4. A client is scheduled for a spiral CT scan with contrast to evaluate for pulmonary embolism. Which information in the client's history requires follow-up by the nurse?

• A. Is allergic to shellfish
• B. Has a history of smoking
• C. Takes metformin for type 2 diabetes mellitus
• D. Has hypertension controlled with medication

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An allergy to shellfish often indicates an allergy to iodine, which is used in contrast dyes for CT scans. This poses a significant risk of an allergic reaction during the procedure. The nurse must ensure appropriate precautions or alternative imaging are considered. Choices B, C, and D are not directly contraindicated for a CT scan with contrast. Smoking history, metformin use, and controlled hypertension do not typically impact the safety or feasibility of the procedure.

5. A client is receiving lactulose for signs of hepatic encephalopathy. To evaluate the therapeutic response, which assessment should the nurse obtain?

• A. Percussion of the abdomen.
• B. Blood glucose level.
• C. Serum electrolytes.
• D. Level of consciousness.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Level of consciousness. Lactulose is used to reduce ammonia levels in hepatic encephalopathy, which can affect brain function. Therefore, monitoring the client's level of consciousness is crucial to evaluate the therapeutic response. Changes in consciousness can indicate the effectiveness of lactulose in reducing ammonia levels. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because while they are important assessments in various conditions, they are not specifically related to evaluating the therapeutic response of lactulose in hepatic encephalopathy.

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