Nursing Elites

1. A male client reports that he took tadalafil 10 mg two hours ago and now feels flushed. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Instruct the client to increase oral fluid intake.
• B. Reassure the client that flushing is a common side effect.
• C. Advise the client to take nitroglycerin as a precaution.
• D. Ask the client to come to the emergency room.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Reassure the client that flushing is a common side effect. Tadalafil, a medication used for erectile dysfunction, can cause flushing as a common side effect. In this situation, the nurse should provide reassurance to the client that the flushing is expected and not necessarily a cause for concern. Increasing oral fluid intake (choice A) may be beneficial for other conditions but is not directly related to tadalafil-induced flushing. Advising the client to take nitroglycerin (choice C) is incorrect, as nitroglycerin is not indicated for flushing. Asking the client to come to the emergency room (choice D) is unnecessary at this point since flushing is a known side effect and does not typically require urgent medical attention.

2. What is the expected outcome of prescribing a proton pump inhibitor to a client with a peptic ulcer?

• A. Promote healing of the gastric mucosa.
• B. Neutralize the effects of stomach acid.
• C. Inhibit the growth of Helicobacter pylori.
• D. Reduce gastric acid secretion.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Reduce gastric acid secretion. Proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) work by reducing gastric acid secretion, which helps prevent further irritation of the gastric mucosa and allows ulcers to heal. While promoting healing of the gastric mucosa (Choice A) is an indirect outcome of reducing gastric acid secretion, the primary mechanism of PPIs is to lower acid levels. Choice B, neutralizing the effects of stomach acid, is typically associated with antacids, not PPIs. Inhibiting the growth of Helicobacter pylori (Choice C) is usually achieved with antibiotics, not PPIs.

3. A client with acute kidney injury (AKI) is experiencing hyperkalemia. What intervention should the nurse prioritize?

• A. Administer IV calcium gluconate.
• B. Administer sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate).
• C. Administer insulin with dextrose.
• D. Restrict potassium intake in the client's diet.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with acute kidney injury (AKI) experiencing hyperkalemia is to administer IV calcium gluconate. Calcium gluconate helps stabilize the myocardium and prevent life-threatening arrhythmias in hyperkalemia by antagonizing the cardiac effects of high potassium levels. Choice B, administering sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate), is used to lower potassium levels in the gastrointestinal tract but is not the priority in acute severe hyperkalemia. Choice C, administering insulin with dextrose, helps drive potassium into cells but is not the priority in a client at risk for arrhythmias due to hyperkalemia. Choice D, restricting potassium intake in the client's diet, is a long-term strategy but is not the immediate priority in managing acute hyperkalemia.

4. A client is admitted with an epidural hematoma after a skateboarding accident. How should the nurse differentiate the vascular source of intracranial bleeding?

• A. Monitor for clear fluid leakage from the nose.
• B. Assess for rapid onset of decreased level of consciousness.
• C. Check for bruising around the head and neck.
• D. Assess for changes in pupil size and reactivity.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An epidural hematoma is characterized by a rapid onset of symptoms, including decreased level of consciousness, due to arterial bleeding, which differentiates it from other types of intracranial hemorrhage. Monitoring for clear fluid leakage from the nose (choice A) is more indicative of a basilar skull fracture and cerebrospinal fluid leak. Checking for bruising around the head and neck (choice C) is more suggestive of soft tissue injuries or facial fractures. Assessing for changes in pupil size and reactivity (choice D) is essential in evaluating traumatic brain injuries, but it is not specific to differentiating the vascular source of intracranial bleeding in an epidural hematoma.

5. A client with tuberculosis (TB) is being discharged on isoniazid and rifampin. What instruction should the nurse prioritize?

• A. Complete the full course of antibiotics.
• B. Notify the healthcare provider if you experience tingling in your fingers.
• C. Use a disposable mask when in contact with others.
• D. Monitor liver function tests monthly.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to use a disposable mask when in contact with others. TB is highly contagious, and wearing a mask can help prevent the spread of the disease to others. Choice A is important but not the priority as using a mask directly impacts public health. Choice B is related to a potential side effect of isoniazid, peripheral neuropathy, but immediate healthcare provider notification is not required. Choice D is relevant due to the potential hepatotoxicity of isoniazid and rifampin, but it is not the priority instruction in this scenario.

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