Nursing Elites

1. A male client reports that he took tadalafil 10 mg two hours ago and now feels flushed. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Instruct the client to increase oral fluid intake.
• B. Reassure the client that flushing is a common side effect.
• C. Advise the client to take nitroglycerin as a precaution.
• D. Ask the client to come to the emergency room.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Reassure the client that flushing is a common side effect. Tadalafil, a medication used for erectile dysfunction, can cause flushing as a common side effect. In this situation, the nurse should provide reassurance to the client that the flushing is expected and not necessarily a cause for concern. Increasing oral fluid intake (choice A) may be beneficial for other conditions but is not directly related to tadalafil-induced flushing. Advising the client to take nitroglycerin (choice C) is incorrect, as nitroglycerin is not indicated for flushing. Asking the client to come to the emergency room (choice D) is unnecessary at this point since flushing is a known side effect and does not typically require urgent medical attention.

2. While caring for a client's postoperative dressing, the nurse observes purulent drainage at the wound. Before reporting this finding to the healthcare provider, the nurse should review which of the client's laboratory values?

• A. White blood cell count
• B. Hemoglobin
• C. Serum creatinine
• D. Culture for sensitive organisms

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Purulent drainage suggests an infection at the wound site. Reviewing the culture and sensitivity results will guide appropriate antibiotic treatment by identifying the causative organisms and their antibiotic sensitivities. Elevated white blood cells indicate infection but do not specify the organism. Creatinine and hemoglobin values are unrelated to wound infections.

3. A client with heart failure is prescribed digoxin. What assessment finding should the nurse report immediately?

• A. Bradycardia of 50 beats per minute.
• B. Heart rate of 110 beats per minute.
• C. Respiratory rate of 16 breaths per minute.
• D. Blood pressure of 130/80 mmHg.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bradycardia of 50 beats per minute. Bradycardia is a critical assessment finding in a client prescribed with digoxin, as it can indicate digoxin toxicity. Bradycardia is a known side effect of digoxin, and if left unaddressed, it can lead to serious complications such as arrhythmias or cardiac arrest. Both choices B, heart rate of 110 beats per minute, and C, respiratory rate of 16 breaths per minute, fall within normal ranges and do not raise immediate concerns. Choice D, blood pressure of 130/80 mmHg, is also within normal limits and does not indicate digoxin toxicity. Therefore, the nurse should report bradycardia promptly to prevent further complications.

4. A client with heart failure has a prescription for digoxin. The nurse is aware that sufficient potassium should be included in the diet because hypokalemia in combination with this medication ____________.

• A. Can predispose to dysrhythmias
• B. May lead to oliguria
• C. May cause irritability and anxiety
• D. Sometimes alters consciousness

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Can predispose to dysrhythmias. Hypokalemia combined with digoxin increases the risk of dysrhythmias due to the potentiation of digoxin's effects on cardiac conduction. Choice B, May lead to oliguria, is incorrect because hypokalemia is not typically associated with oliguria. Choice C, May cause irritability and anxiety, is incorrect as these symptoms are more commonly associated with hypocalcemia. Choice D, Sometimes alters consciousness, is incorrect as altered consciousness is not a typical effect of hypokalemia combined with digoxin.

5. A client in labor who received epidural anesthesia experiences a sudden drop in blood pressure. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula.
• B. Administer an intravenous fluid bolus.
• C. Prepare the client for an emergency cesarean section.
• D. Place the client in a lateral position.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client experiencing a sudden drop in blood pressure after epidural anesthesia, the first action the nurse should take is to place the client in a lateral position. This position helps improve venous return and cardiac output by relieving aortocaval compression. Administering oxygen via nasal cannula may be necessary if the client shows signs of respiratory distress, but it is not the first priority in this situation. Administering an intravenous fluid bolus can help stabilize blood pressure, but repositioning the client takes precedence. Preparing the client for an emergency cesarean section is not indicated solely based on a sudden drop in blood pressure after epidural anesthesia; this step would be considered if other complications arise.

Similar Questions