Nursing Elites

1. A male client reports that he took tadalafil 10 mg two hours ago and now feels flushed. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Instruct the client to increase oral fluid intake.
• B. Reassure the client that flushing is a common side effect.
• C. Advise the client to take nitroglycerin as a precaution.
• D. Ask the client to come to the emergency room.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Reassure the client that flushing is a common side effect. Tadalafil, a medication used for erectile dysfunction, can cause flushing as a common side effect. In this situation, the nurse should provide reassurance to the client that the flushing is expected and not necessarily a cause for concern. Increasing oral fluid intake (choice A) may be beneficial for other conditions but is not directly related to tadalafil-induced flushing. Advising the client to take nitroglycerin (choice C) is incorrect, as nitroglycerin is not indicated for flushing. Asking the client to come to the emergency room (choice D) is unnecessary at this point since flushing is a known side effect and does not typically require urgent medical attention.

2. Which foods should a healthcare provider recommend for a child with phenylketonuria (PKU) to avoid?

• A. Fresh fruit and vegetables
• B. Foods sweetened with aspartame
• C. Bread with honey
• D. Gluten-rich bread

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Foods sweetened with aspartame.' Children with PKU must avoid foods containing aspartame because it breaks down into phenylalanine, which can worsen their condition. Choice A, fresh fruit and vegetables, are generally healthy and safe for individuals with PKU. Choice C, bread with honey, is also safe unless the bread contains artificial sweeteners like aspartame. Choice D, gluten-rich bread, is not specifically problematic for individuals with PKU unless it contains aspartame or other substances high in phenylalanine.

3. A client is admitted with a suspected gastrointestinal bleed. What assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Bright red blood in the vomit.
• B. Elevated blood pressure and heart rate.
• C. Coffee ground emesis.
• D. Dark, tarry stools.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Dark, tarry stools indicate the presence of digested blood in the gastrointestinal tract, signifying a higher gastrointestinal bleed. This finding requires immediate intervention due to the potential severity of the bleed. Bright red blood in the vomit may indicate active bleeding but is not as concerning as digested blood. Elevated blood pressure and heart rate are common responses to bleeding but do not provide direct evidence of the source or severity of the bleed. Coffee ground emesis is indicative of partially digested blood and is a concern but not as urgent as dark, tarry stools.

4. A client with a recent myocardial infarction is prescribed a beta-blocker. What side effect should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Monitor the client for bradycardia.
• B. Check the client’s blood pressure for signs of hypotension.
• C. Monitor the client for signs of hyperglycemia.
• D. Monitor for signs of fluid retention.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Check the client’s blood pressure for signs of hypotension.' Beta-blockers can lead to decreased heart rate, but bradycardia is not the primary side effect to monitor. Monitoring for bradycardia is more relevant when administering medications like digoxin. Hyperglycemia is associated with medications like corticosteroids, not beta-blockers. Fluid retention is a side effect seen with medications like corticosteroids or calcium channel blockers, not beta-blockers. Therefore, in a client taking a beta-blocker after a myocardial infarction, monitoring for hypotension is crucial due to the medication's mechanism of action.

5. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is prescribed warfarin. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to assess the therapeutic effect of this medication?

• A. Platelet count
• B. Prothrombin time (PT)
• C. White blood cell count
• D. Hemoglobin level

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Prothrombin time (PT) is the correct laboratory value to monitor to assess the therapeutic effect of warfarin. Warfarin works by inhibiting clotting factors, and PT measures the time it takes for blood to clot. Monitoring PT helps ensure that the medication is working effectively to prevent clot formation without causing excessive bleeding. Platelet count (Choice A) is not specific to warfarin therapy and assesses the number of platelets in the blood. White blood cell count (Choice C) and hemoglobin level (Choice D) are not directly related to monitoring the therapeutic effect of warfarin.

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